AIBE: Mock test 2, Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.

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Mock Test 2 

1.) Insurance is: 

A.) Contract of Indemnity 

B.) contingent contract 

C.) contract of guarantee 

D.) wagering contract 

2.) X agrees to pay Rs. 5000 to Y if Y’s car is burnt. It is : 

A.) void 

B.) voidable contract 

C.) valid contract 

D.) wagering contract 

3.) Which of the following is not an essential requirement of a valid contingent contract: 

A.) The happening of the event must be outside the control of the parties 

B.) The event must be uncertain 

C.) The performance must be conditional 

D.) The event must be an act of God 

4.) A offers to B, by letter, to sell his car for Rs.2 lakhs. The letter is written on 4th March, posted on 5th March and reaches B on 8th March. The communication of offer completes on: 

A.) 5th March 

B.) 8th March 

C.) 4th March 

D.) 9th March 

5.) An agreement without free consent is : 

A.) Illegal agreement 

B.) valid contract 

C.) voidable contravt 

D.) void contract 

6.) When two parties negotiate on an arms length basis and have no individual or fiduciary relationship with one another, which of the following grounds of challenge to the contract is least likely to succeed: 

A.) Undue Influence 

B.) coercion 

C.) misrepresentation 

D.) Fraud 

7.) Which of the following are examples of a fiduciary relationship? 

A.) Master and servant 

B.) Solicitor and client 

C.) Doctor and Patient 

D.) All of the above 

8.) In an application for temporary relief the plaintiff will have to establish that: 

A.) Prima facie case is in his favour 

B.) he may suffer irreperable loss 

C.) Balance of convenience is in his favour 

D.) All of the above 

9.) An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a : 

A.) Legal Contract 

B.) Void contract 

C.) Fraudelent Contract 

D.) Voidable Contract 

10.) A Contingent contract dependent on the happening of an impossible event is : 

A.) void contract 

B.) voidable contract 

C.) valid contract 

D.) illegal contract 

11.) Consideration must be at the desire of : 

A.) Promisee 

B.) Stranger 

C.) Promisor 

D.) Third Party 

12.) Which of the following agreements with minor is/are not valid : 

A.) Agreement imposing an obligation on the minor 

B.) Agreement for agreement for supply of necessities 

C.) benefits of the minors 

D.) all of these 

13.) Which section of the Indian Contract Act defines the term ‘agreement’? 

A.) 2(b) 

B.) 2 ( e ) 

C.) 2 ( c ) 

D.) 2 (d) 

14.) Under the Specific Relief Act, no suit for recovery of possession of immovable property can be instituted: 

A.) Against a public company 

B.) Against a private company 

C.) Against the government 

D.) Against all of these 

15.) Which section of the Specific Relief Act lists out the situations when an injunction cannot be granted by a court? 

A.) Section 41 

B.) Section 40 

C.) Section 37 

D.) Section 29 

16.) Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced : 

A.) Execution of a formal deed of partnership 

B.) contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on land 

C.) contract which determinable in its nature 

D.) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once 

17.) The Sale of Goods Act applies to the sale of the following: 

A.) Negotiable Instrument 

B.) Land 

C.) Tangible movable goods 

D.) Immovable property 

18.) As per the Negotiable Instruments Act, a bill of exchange, cheque and a promissory note can: 

A.) Be negotiated by endorsement 

B.) None of the instruments can be endorsed 

C.) Only promissory notes can be endorsed 

19.) A paid some money to B by mistake which was in fact Only bills of exchange and promissory notes due to C, in this case : 

A.) A is not entitled to recover money as there is no contract between A and B 

B.) A is not entitled to recover money as the mistake makes the arrangement between A and B void 

C.) A is entitled to recover money since he paid by mistake 

D.) B is not liable to pay as he did not ask for such payment 

20.) A’ promises to marry B if after 3 years they are both living in the same city. This agreement is: 

A.) Void, being in restraint of marriage 

B.) void, being against public policy 

C.) Void, having an unlawful objective 

D.) Perfectly valid 

21.) Notion of freedom and liberty imbibed in our Constitution, are taken from which historical occurrence: 

A.) Russian Revolution 

B.) Chinese Revolution 

C.) French Revolution 

D.) American Revolution 

22.) Around 70% of Constitution accepted at its inception was sourced from : 

A.) British Indian Government Act, 1930 

B.) Government of India Act, 1935 

C.) Indian Act, 1945 

D.) British Laws Act, 1935 

23.) Who passed the Objectives Resolution for Constitutional Assembly debates : 

A.) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

B.) B. R. Ambedkar 

C.) Jawaharlal Nehru 

D.) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 

24.) Which Article of the Constitution assigns English as the official language in the High Courts & Supreme Court: 

A.) Article 368 

B.) Article 379 

C.) Article 348 

D.) Article 365 

25.) Which landmark judgement first held that ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution cannot be altered: 

A.) Minerva Mills case 

B.) IR Coelho case 

C.) Kartar Singh case 

D.) Keshavananda Bharati case 

26.) Under the Indian Constitution, how many fundamental duties are there : 

A.) 6 

B.) 7 

C.) 9 

D.) 11 

27.) Prof. K C Wheare describes government as enshrined in the Constitution as ; 

A.) Federal 

B.) Unitary 

C.) Quasi-federal 

D.) Unitary in form and Federal in spirit 

28.) Constitution of India is subject to controls by: 

A.) Parliamentary 

B.) Judiciary 

C.) Executive 

D.) Not subjected to any of these but governs the functioning of all the above organs 

29.) Self government or Gram Panchayat later included in the Constitution, was a vision of:

A.) Lal Bahadur Shastri 

B.) Chandrashekar Azad 

C.) Mahatma Gandhi 

D.) Jawaharlal Nehru 

30.) In case of violation of fundamental rights, an aggrieved person can file a _____ in the Supreme Court : 

A.) Writ petition 

B.) Appeal 

C.) Complaint 

D.) Notification 

31.) If it is proved that a woman’s death occurred within 7 years of her marriage and that she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or his relatives, there is a presumption of: 

A.) Culpable homicide 

B.) Murder 

C.) Dowry death 

D.) All of the above 

32.) If A, a citizen of India commits a crime in foreign land, is A subject to Indian laws : 

A.) Yes 

B.) No 

C.) Depends on the laws of that particular country 

D.) Only if the victim is also an Indian citizen 

33.) A Muslim wife claiming compensation for husband can opt for remedies under: 

A.) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 

B.) Code of Criminal Procedure 

C.) Constitution 

D.) Both (a) & (b) 

34.) An adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his wife is : 

A.) Void 

B.) Voidable 

C.) Valid 

D.) Invalid 

35.) Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955: 

A.) Sikhs 

B.) Jains 

C.) Parsis 

D.) Buddhists 

36.) On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriage is : 

A.) Void (Batil) 

B.) Valid (Sahih) 

C.) Irregular (Fasid) 

D.) Muta 

37.) Which section of the CPC provides for institution of an inter-pleader suit? 

A.) Section 87 

B.) Section 88 

C.) Section 89 

D.) Section 90 

38.) Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature under C.P.C. : 

A.) A suit against deprivation from attending social functions 

B.) A suit for arrears of salary 

C.) A suit for right of burial 

D.) A suit for restitution of conjugal rights 

39.) Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of the C.P.C.: 

A.) Numerous parties 

B.) Same interest 

C.) Leave of the court 

D.) Written permission of those who are being represented 

40.) Provision for inter-pleader suit is available under : 

A.) Constitution 

B.) Indian Penal Code 

C.) Civil Procedure Code 

D.) Criminal Procedure Code 

41.) Mesne profits’ as defined under C.P.C means : 

A.) those profits which a person in wrongful possession of property received or might have received with ordinary diligence, and with interest 

B.) those profits which the person in wrongful possession of property actually received including profits due to improvements made by such person 

C.) those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received but without any interest on such profits 

D.) those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received 

42.) Foreign judgment as defined under section 2(6) of CPC means : 

A.) judgment given by an Indian Court in respect of foreigners 

B.) judgment given by a foreign court 

C.) both (a) & (b) 

D.) neither (a) nor (b) 

43.) Are arrest and attachment possible in a civil case, before a court issues a judgment? 

A.) No, arrest is possible in criminal cases only but attachment is possible in civil cases. 

B.) Both are possible in civil cases if there is a danger that the defendant may abscond or that he may transfer his property outside the jurisdiction of the court 

C.) Neither is possible 

D.) Arrest is possible in civil cases before judgment, but attachment only occurs in execution of judgment 

44.) Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provision of : 

A.) Section 17 of C.P.C. 

B.) Section 18 of C.P.C. 

C.) Section 19 of C.P.C. 

D.) Section 20 of C.P.C. 

45.) In proceeding under provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may require any person to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period, not exceeding : 

A.) One Year 

B.) Two Years 

C.) Three Years 

D.) Six Months 

46.) When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure is dead, then : 

A.) Offence cannot be compounded 

B.) Offence can be compounded by any of the eye-witnesses 

C.) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence without the consent of the Court 

D.) Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the Court 

47.) A private person may arrest a person who : 

A.) Is reported to be a criminal 

B.) In his presence commits a non-cognizable offence 

C.) In his presence commits a cognizable and non-bailable offence 

D.) In his presence commits a bailable offence 

48.) Is plea bargaining permissible under Indian law? The main characteristic of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is : 

A.) No, there is a compounding procedure under Code of Criminal Procedure but that is different from plea bargaining. 

B.) No, plea bargaining would be against public policy. 

C.) It has been introduced under the Code of Criminal Procedure for certain categories of offences. 

D.) It is permissible only in the case of hardened criminals 

49.) Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under the Code of Criminal Procedure : 

A.) The appropriate Government 

B.) The President of India 

C.) The Governor of the State 

50.) Which Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provide for Trial before a Court of Session : 

A.) Sections 225 to 237 

B.) Sections 238 to 243 

C.) Sections 251 to 259 

51.) Who among the following is not empowered to tender pardon to an ‘accomplice’ under 

the Code of Criminal Procedure 

A.) Metropolitan magistrate 

B.) Chief Judicial Magistrate 

C.) Magistrate of the First Class 

D.) Magistrate of Second Class 

52.) A complaint case is commenced by 

A.) Filing a complaint before the Executive Magistrate 

B.) Writing a letter to the Superintendent of Police or the Commissioner, as the case may 

C.) Filing an FIR 

D.) Filing a complaint before the Judicial Magistrate 

53.) A conditional order for removal of public nuisance under the Code of Criminal Procedure may be passed by 

A.) District Magistrate 

B.) Executive Magistrate specially empowered 

C.) sub divisional 

D.) Any of the above authorities 

54.) Under which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure an accused person can himself 

be a competent witness 

A.) Section 311 

B.) Section 313 

C.) Section 315 

D.) Section 319 

55.) Who among the following is not empowered to tender pardon to accomplice under the code of criminal procedure 

A.) Metropolitan Magistrate 

B.) Magistrate of Second Class 

C.) Chief Judicial Magistrate 

D.) Magistrate of the First Class 

56.) The Indian Evidence Act came into force on the territory of Goa on 

A.) 15.08.1972 

B.) 01.06.1964 

C.) 01.08.1872 

D.) 01.01.1964 

57.) Indian Evidence Act is applicable to 

A.) Judicial proceedings in courts 

B.) Proceedings before the arbitrator 

C.) Proceedings before tribunals 

D.) All the above 

58.) Are admissions conclusive proof? 

A.) Yes 

B.) No, but usually they are sufficient evidence of the facts admitted, and they 

C.) No 

D.) Depends on the circumstances 

59.) Are extra-judicial admissions admissible in court? 

A.) Yes, under certain circumstances 

B.) No, but usually they are sufficient evidence of the facts admitted, and they 

C.) No, the admission must be made before a magistrate 

D.) Both b and c 

60.) Facts in issue as per the Indian Evidence Act means : 

A.) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties 

B.) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties 

C.) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties 

D.) All the above 

61.) Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act has no application in departmental proceedings. The 

statement is 

A.) Fully correct 

B.) Partly correct 

C.) None of these 

62.) Is active euthanasia legal in India? 

A.) Yes, it is part of the right to die 

B.) No 

C.) Only when the patient is approaching permanent vegetative state 

D.) Yes, it is part of the right to life 

63.) P instigates Q to cause the death of R. P gives a gun to Q to shoot R. Q shoots at R in the presence of P causing R’s death. Which of the following statement is correct? 

A.) P should be prosecuted for attempt to murder or attempt to commit culpable homicide. 

B.) Both P is liable for prosecution for murder or culpable homicide. 

C.) P has abetted the murder of R. 

D.) P is not liable as he was only in the preparation phase and did not himself attempt the killing 

64.) Supreme Court of India stuck down Section 303 of I.P.C. as unconstitutional in which of the following cases 

A.) Machhi Singh vs State of Punjab 

B.) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab 

C.) Santa Singh vs State of Punjab 

D.) Mithu vs State of Punjab 

65.) A, with a guilty intention, abets a child or a lunatic to commit an act which would be an offenc, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence, and having the same intention as A. whether A commits abetting 

A.) Yes 

B.) No 

C.) Either (a) or (b) 

D.) None of the above 

66.) A, on grave and sudden provocation, fires a pistol at Z, under such circumstances that if he thereby caused death he would be guilty of culpable homicide not amounting murder.what offence A has committed 

A.) Attempt to commit culpable homicide 

B.) Attempt to commit murder 

C.) Abetment of culpable homicide 

D.) Neither (a) nor (b) 

67.) Sexual intercourse of a woman with her consent is considered rape if she is under the age of 

A.) 16 

B.) 17 

C.) 18 

D.) 21 

68.) How many persons must be involved in an act of robbery, if it is to qualify as a dacoity? 

A.) Four 

B.) Between Two-three 

C.) Five or above 

D.) None of these 

69.) Which of the following cases established ‘Doctrine of absolute liability in India 

A.) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India 

B.) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 

C.) IR Coelho v. Union of India 

D.) Bank Nationalisation case 

70.) Intangible property such as patents, trademarks and copyrights constitute: 

A.) Real property 

B.) Movable property 

C.) Immovable property 

D.) Do not constitute property at all 

71.) The Indian Parliament enacted Consumer Protection Act in December, 1986. It came into force on: 

A.) May 15 , 1972 

B.) May 25, 1969 

C.) April 25, 1987 

D.) April 15, 1987 

72.) Donoghue v. Stevenson is a landmark case for which of the following areas of study: 

A.) Equality in American Constitutional law 

B.) Neighbour principle in Tort law 

C.) Gross Negligence in Criminal law 

D.) Right to life in Indian Constitutional law 

73.) Consumers Dispute Redressal Forum to be known as the District Forum established by: 

A.) Union government 

B.) State government 

C.) Special Appellate Body 

D.) Both (a) & (b) 

74.) The word ‘dealer’ as per the Motor Vehicles Act, includes a person engaged in: 

A.) in the repair of motor vehicles 

B.) in the business of hypothecation, leasing or hire-purchase of motor vehicle 

C.) in building bodies for attachment to chassis 

D.) All of the Above 

75.) As per the Factories Act, the floor of ever work room should be cleaned once every 

A.) Day 

B.) Month 

C.) Week 

D.) Hour 

76.) As per the Factories Act, a person who has not completed his 15th year of age is a/an : 

A.) Adolescent 

B.) Teenager 

C.) Child 

D.) Adult 

77.) Which law governs the methods to fix minimum wages in scheduled industries: 

A.) Industrial Dispute Act 

B.) Minimum Wages Act 

C.) Trade Union Act 

D.) Workman’s Compensation Act 

78.) In which landmark case did the Supreme Court lay down guidelines for protection of women at workplace against sexual harassement. 

A.) Kartar Singh case 

B.) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan 

C.) IR Coelho case 

D.) Indira Gandhi case 

79.) Maximum number of members in a public company are: 

A.) Unlimited 

B.) Fifty 

C.) Five hundred 

D.) Two thousand 

80.) The doctrine of constructive notice is: 

A.) A principle of company law stating that outsiders must have read publicly available document of the company. 

B.) Ignorance of law is no excuse 

C.) Is a way of providing deemed service to a party if he avoids service of court processes 

D.) None of these 

81.) When shares are transferred to X from Y, X becomes a __________ of the company: 

A.) Shareholder 

B.) Promoter 

C.) Both (a) & (b) 

D.) None of these 

82.) Shares of which kind of company are freely transferable? 

A.) Public Company 

B.) Government company 

C.) Private company 

D.) Foreign company 

83.) What is the meaning of the principle Kompetenz-kompetenz? 

A.) It refers to the freedom of contract of parties 

B.) It refers to the ability of the arbitration tribunal to decide on its own jurisdiction 

C.) It refers to the equal competence of all sovereign states with respect to international affair 

D.) None of the above 

84.) The source of professional ethics for Indian advocates can be traced to: 

A.) Advocates Act, 1961 

B.) Bar Council of India Rules 

C.) Both (a) & (b) 

D.) None of these 

85.) Is it permissible for a lawyer to charge fees as a proportion of the relief secured by the party 

A.) Yes 

B.) No, it is prohibited under all circumstances as per BCI Rules. It is permitted in public interest litigation 

C.) It is permitted in criminal cases 

86.) State Bar Councils can frame their own rules regarding enrolment of advocates as per the provision of 

A.) Advocates Act, 1961 

B.) Bar Council Rules Act 

C.) Indian Bar Act 

D.) None of these 

87.) Bar Council of India was established by: 

A.) An act of the Government of England 

B.) Vidhan Sabha 

C.) Presidential Order 

D.) Parliamentary Statute 

88.) For the purpose of computation of limitation period, the date on which a particular instrument was executed will by default be presumed to be made with references to: 

A.) English calendar 

B.) Gregorian calendar 

C.) Roman calendar 

D.) Egyptian calendar 

89.) Can delay in filing a suit be condoned under Limitation Act? 

A.) No. Limitation Act does not allow any condonation. 

B.) Yes, under Section 5. 

C.) It can be condoned by the High Court only, pursuant to its inherent power. 

D.) Only when the plaintiff shows sufficient cause. 

90.) ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court : 

A.) Asking a public official or any authority to perform specific legal duties 

B.) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office 

C.) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court 

D.) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction 

91.) How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor 

A.) 1/3rd 

B.) 1/12 th 

C.) 1/8th 

D.) 1/6th 

92.) The relationship between Ministers and Civil Servants in India emerged as a result of: 

A.) Government of India Act, 1935 

B.) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919 

C.) Indian Constitution, 1950 

D.) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 

93.) A statutory corporation is: 

A.) A corporate entity but which is constituted and governed by a separate legislation instead of companies Act 

B.) Similar to a ministry of the government 

C.) An entity which enjoys sovereign immunity 

D.) Owned by the Government, but governed by the Companies Act. 

94.) Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is applicable to: 

A.) Arbitrations conducted outside India 

B.) Arbitrations where both parties are foreigners but which are conducted in India 

C.) Conciliation 

D.) International commercial arbitatrations 

95.) International commercial arbitration is defined under section ________ of the Arbitration and conciliation Act 

A.) Section 2(e) 

B.) Section 2(f) 

C.) Section 2(g) 

D.) Section 2(h) 

96.) Arbitration agreement means: 

A.) It means a written agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all or certain dispute which have arisen or which may arise between them in respect of a defined legal relationship, contractual or not 

B.) It means an agreement by the parties to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes which have arisen oe which may arise between them in respect of a defind legal relationship which is not contractual 

C.) An oral arbitration agreement 

D.) None of these 

97.) Section-115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for the following 

A.) Reference 

B.) Review 

C.) Revision 

D.) Appeal to the Supreme Court 

98.) Which one of the following cases deals with issues pertaining to second appeal 

A.) Madan Lal Vs. Bal Krishna 

B.) Sudhir G. Angur Vs. M. Sanjeev 

C.) Sheodan Singh Vs. Daryao Kunwar 

D.) Harshad Chiman Lal Modi Vs. D.L.F. Universal Ltd. 

99.) A, who is accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived of the power of self control. B denies this fact. 

A.) The burden of proof must be shared by both ‘A’ and ‘B’ 

B.) The burden of proof is on ‘B’ 

C.) The burden of proof is on prosecution 

D.) The burden of proof is on ‘A’ 

100.) Examination which is conducted after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him 

A.) Main examination 

B.) Additional examination 

C.) Re-examination 

D.) Re-cross- examination 

Answers 

1.) A 2.) C 3.) D 4.) B 5.) C 6.) C 7.) D 8.) D 9.) B 10.) A 11.) C 12.) B 13.) B 14.) C 15.) A 16.) C 17.) C 18.) A 19.) C 20.) D 21.) C 22.) B 23.) C 24.) C 25.) D 26.) D 27.) C 28.) D 29.) C 30.) A 31.) C 32.) A 33.) D 34.) D 35.) C 36.) A 37.) B 38.) A 39.) D 40.) C 41.) A 42.) B 43.) B 44.) B 45.) A 46.) D 47.) C 48.) C 49.) A 50.) A 51.) D 52.) D 53.) D 54.) C 55.) B 56.) B 57.) A 58.) B 59.) A 60.) B 61.) A 62.) B 63.) B 64.) D 65.) A 66.) A 67.) A 68.) C 69.) A 70.) B 71.) D 72.) B 73.) B 74.) D 75.) C 76.) C 77.) B 78.) B 79.) A 80.) A 81.) A 82.) A 83.) B 84.) C 85.) B 86.) A 87.) A 88.) B 89.) A 90.) A 91.) A 92.) B 93.) A 94.) A 95.) B 96.) A 97.) C 98.) A 99.) D 100.) C 

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