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AIBE: Mock test 3, Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.

Mock Test Part 3

1.) Wide which amendment the word secular was inserted to the preamble of the Indian constitution 

A.) 42nd 

B.) 53rd 

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C.) 44th 

D.) 46th 

2.) The directive principles of state policy are inspired by the: 

A.) German Constitution 

B.) Irish constitution 

C.) US constitution 

D.) Australian constitution 

3.) Which amendment gave constitutional status to panchayati raj institution for the first time in india 

A.) 73rd amendment act 1992 

B.) 42nd amendment act 1976 

C.) 3rd amendment act 1954 

D.) 84th amendment act 2001 

4.) Who presided over the steering committee of the constituent assembly of india 

A.) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 

B.) BR Ambedkar 

C.) Rajendra Prasad 

D.) A.K Iyyar 

5.) Death sentence must be confirmed by 

A.) sessions judge 

B.) high court 

C.) supreme court 

D.) full bench of SC 

6.) An amendment of the Constitution needs___ to be passed: 

A.) ~Assent from 51% majority of the LokSabha and RajyaSabha 

B.) ~Assent of 51% majority of both LokSabha and RajyaSabha 

C.) ~Assent of 3/4th majority of LokSabha and RajyaSabha 

D.) assent of 2/3rd majority of LokSabha and RajyaSabha 

7.) Which schedule of the constitution mentions anti-defection provisions? 

A.) First 

B.) fifth 

C.) eighth 

D.) tenth 

8.) Which amendment makes Right to Education at an elementary level a Fundamental Right in india? 

A.) 86th Amendment 2002 

B.) 91st Amendment 2005 

C.) 42nd Amendment 1976 

D.) 10th Amendment 1959 

9.) ‘The law declared by the Supreme Court is to be binding on all courts’. This is encompassed in which article of the constitution 

A.) 139 

B.) 140 

C.) 141 

D.) 142 

10.) Which Article of the Indian Constitution embodies the concept of Doctrine of Eclipse? 

A.) 110 

B.) 13 

C.) 349 

D.) 2 

11.) Which Section of the CPC lays down the requirement of prior notice for any proceeding to be instituted against the government or any public official 

A.) section 100 

B.) section 120 

C.) section 160 

D.) section 80 

12.) What is the limitation period to file an appeal against the decree or the order in the HC and in any other court 

A.) 90 days, 60 days 

B.) 30 days, 90 days 

C.) 90 days, 30 days 

D.) 60 days, 90 days 

13.) For arrest and detention under CPC: 

A.) ~No dwelling-house shall be entered after sunset and before sunrise 

B.) ~No outer door of a dwelling-house shall be broken open unless such dwelling-house is in the occupancy of the judgement-debtor and he refuses or in way prevents access 

C.) ~where the decree in execution of which a judgment-debtor is arrested, is a decree for the payment of money and the judgement debtor pays amount of the decree and the costs of the arrest to the officer arresting him, such officer shall at once release him 

D.) all of the above 

14.) Under Section 9, Code of Civil Procedure, a Court, during pendency of a suit before it: 

A.) can entertain and try second suit between the same parties if the issues involved arise out of different transactions 

B.) ~Cannot entertain and try second suit if the issues involved arise out of different transactions 

C.) ~Shall not proceed to try though may entertain second suit if the issues involved arise out of different transaction 

D.) none of the above

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15.) Order IX of CPC deals with: 

A.) ~Interim order 

B.) ~Res sub judice 

C.) ex parte order 

D.) none of the above 

16.) Where the liability in relation to sum adjudged has not arisen out of a commercial transaction, the maximum yearly rate of interest award-able under section 34(1) of the C.P.C. from the date of decree for payment of money to date of payment is: 

A.) 0.12 

B.) 0.18 

C.) 0.1 

D.) 0.06 

17.) The CPC came to force on 

A.) ~January 1, 1908 

B.) ~January 1, 1909 

C.) ~April 1, 1908 

D.) ~None of the above 

18.) The plaint shall be rejected by the court under section order 7 Rule 2(e) of Civil Procedure Code, if it is not filed in: 

A.) duplicate 

B.) ~triplicate 

C.) ~quadruplicate 

D.) ~live copies 

19.) Whether the pendency of a suit in a foreign court will preclude the courts in India from trying a suit founded on the same cause of action? 

A.) yes 

B.) no 

C.) it will depend on the nature of the suit 

D.) ~Finding will be said on Valuation of the suit 

20.) Under order XVI of the CPC, list of witnesses for both parties are to be presented by both the parties within ___ days of the date on which the issues are settled: 

A.) 15 

B.) 30 

C.) 14 

D.) 60 

21.) In every criminal trial when the magistrate finds the accused guilty he shall pass the sentence after hearing the accused 

A.) ~False -it is not required in summons cases 

B.) true -without hearing the accused no sentences can be passed 

C.) ~It is required only before sending the conviction warrant 

D.) ~Not required at all in any case 

22.) Which of the following offences can be tried summarily under Section 260 of CrPC 

A.) ~Offences not punishable with life imprisonment 

B.) ~Offences not punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding two years 

C.) ~Only a 

D.) both a and b 

23.) Police can arrest without warrant for: 

A.) ~Non cognizable offences 

B.) cognizable offences 

C.) ~Compoundable offences 

D.) both b and c 

24.) Magistrate can authorize detention under s. 167 (2) for a maximum period of: 

A.) ten days 

B.) seven days 

C.) thirty days 

D.) fifteen days 

25.) Magistrate can authorize detention under s. 167 (2) for a maximum period of: 

A.) 376 

B.) 356 

C.) 327 

D.) 337 

26.) The court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment up to: 

A.) five years 

B.) two years 

C.) three years 

D.) ten years 

27.) Which of the following offences can be tried summarily? 

A.) ~Offences not punishable with death 

B.) ~Housebreaking 

C.) ~Insult and criminal intimidation 

D.) all of the above 

28.) Can a bail be granted in case of non bailable offences? 

A.) yes 

B.) no 

C.) as per court discretion 

D.) none of the above 

29.) Which section of the CrPC defines “bail”? 

A.) 436 

B.) 2(r) 

C.) 439 

D.) none of the above 

30.) How many chapters is the CrPC divided into? 

A.) 37 

B.) 38 

C.) 39 

D.) 40 

31.) Which chapter of the Indian Evidence Act talks about Burden of Proof? 

A.) 5 

B.) 11 

C.) 7 

D.) 9 

32.) Which of the following statements are not relatable to the expressions defined in Section 3 of the evidence act 

A.) ~That a man has a certain reputation, is a fact. 

B.) court includes arbitrators 

C.) ~Fact includes any mental condition of which a person is conscious of 

D.) ~A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved. 

33.) Which legal provision states that identification by photo is inadmissible as evidence? 

A.) ~Section 5, Indian Evidence Act 

B.) ~Section 3, Indian Evidence Act 

C.) ~Section 10, Indian Evidence Act 

D.) none of the above 

34.) A is accused of murdering B. The following facts are established in trial: A was spotted approaching B’s house a few minutes before the murder. A was seen carrying a knife. A’s knife was blood stained when he came out of B’s house. What sort of evidence are these, in the parlance of Indian Evidence Act? 

A.) ~Primary Evidence 

B.) ~Secondary Evidence 

C.) circumstantial evidence 

D.) direct evidence 

35.) Which of the following is a “document” under the Evidence Act? 

A.) ~A stone inscription 

B.) ~A caricature 

C.) ~A map 

D.) all of the above 

36.) Who is credited with drafting the Indian Evidence Act? 

A.) Sir James Fitzjames Stephen 

B.) ~Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay 

C.) ~Sir Henry Sumners Maine 

D.) none of the above 

37.) If a witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in writing in open court, such evidence is 

A.) primary evidence 

B.) secondary evidence 

C.) documentary evidence 

D.) oral evidence 

38.) X runs a mess where he provides food and lodging to the boarders. Y takes lodging there. The card of the mess says “Rs 1000 per month”. X tenders oral evidence to prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include only board. The evidence is: 

A.) inadmissible 

B.) irrelevant 

C.) admissible 

D.) none of the above 

39.) An agreement in restraint of trade is: 

A.) void 

B.) unenforceable 

C.) illegal 

D.) voidable 

40.) Agreement made with minor is: 

A.) void 

B.) voidable 

C.) illegal 

D.) valid 

41.) Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other are called 

A.) reciprocal promises 

B.) ~cross offers 

C.) ~conditional offer 

D.) ~conditional promises. 

42.) An otherwise sane person enters into a contract in a state of complete drunkenness. The contract is 

A.) void 

B.) valid 

C.) voidable at the option of party 

D.) none of the above 

43.) Which Section of the Indian Contract Act does the landmark Judgment of Mohori Bibi v. Dharmadas Ghose deal with: 

A.) 22 

B.) 173 

C.) 11 

D.) 15 

44.) A is a very old and feeble woman and B is appointed as her caretaker. B tells A that she won’t look after her A enters into a contract with B bequeathing A’s valuable diamond necklace to B. Under which section of the Contract Act can A challenge the validity of the contract? 

A.) 13 

B.) 14 

C.) 15 

D.) both 13 and 14 

45.) An agreement by way of wager is: 

A.) valid 

B.) void 

C.) voidable 

D.) none of the above 

46.) A sells a horse to B. A knows that the horse is unsound, but says nothing of that to B while selling. Under the Indian Contract Act, this amounts to: 

A.) ~Cheating 

B.) ~Fraud 

C.) ~Concealment of Fact 

D.) the transaction is not vitiated by fraud 

47.) A past consideration is valid under: 

A.) indian law 

B.) english law 

C.) both a and b 

D.) none of the above 

48.) Void agreement signifies 

A.) ~agreement illegal in nature 

B.) agreement not enforceable by law 

C.) ~agreement violating legal procedure 

D.) ~agreement against public policy. 

49.) Who said “law and society developed from status to contract”? 

A.) ~Rousseau 

B.) ~HLA Hart 

C.) ~Kelsen 

D.) Sir Henry Maine 

50.) A contract, performance of which becomes impossible or unlawful becomes 

A.) void when the performance becomes unlawful or impossible 

B.) ~void 

C.) ~voidable when the performance becomes impossible. 

D.) ~neither becomes void nor voidable 

51.) Rescission as a relief has been envisaged under: 

A.) ~Section 170 of the Indian Contract Act 

B.) Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act 

C.) ~Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act 

D.) ~Order XII of the CPC 

52.) Chapter VI of the Specific Relief Act provides for: 

A.) ~Injunctive Relief 

B.) declaratory relief 

C.) ~Specific performance of contracts 

D.) all of the above 

53.) No suit for recovery of immovable property can be filed under the Specific Relief Act against: 

A.) ~A body corporate 

B.) the Government 

C.) an individual 

D.) none of the above 

54.) In the absence of any contract specifying otherwise, which of the following right is not available to a partner in a partnership firm? 

A.) right to receive remuneration for business 

B.) ~Right to be indemnified by the firm regarding profits made and losses incurred 

C.) ~Right to have access to the books of the firm 

D.) ~Right to take part in conduct of business of the firm 

55.) A minor: 

A.) ~Cannot enter into a partnership 

B.) ~Is entitled to benefits of a partnership 

C.) both a and b 

D.) none of the above 

56.) A partnership firm is dissolved compulsorily when: 

A.) ~All the partners become insolvent 

B.) ~All but one of the partners is declared insolvent 

C.) ~The purpose of business is deemed illegal due to change in law or introduction of new law 

D.) all of the above 

57.) Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument: 

A.) ~Bank cheque 

B.) ~Promissory note 

C.) ~A bill of exchange 

D.) letter of credit 

58.) The oldest surviving form of negotiable instrument used in India till date is known as: 

A.) hundi 

B.) ~Kabuliyat 

C.) ~Patta 

D.) ~Debottar 

59.) Jack and Jill got into a fight. Jack attempted to pull Jill’s nose and Jill, in exercise of right to private defence, lays hold of Jack in order to prevent him from doing so. Jack is moved to sudden and violent fit of anger and knifes Jill to death. Is Jack guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder or of culpable homicide not amounting to murder 

A.) Culpable homicide amounting to murder because the provocation was given in exercise of lawful right to private defence 

B.) ~Culpable homicide not amounting to murder because Jack was moved to sudden and grave provocation by Jill’s action 

C.) ~Culpable homicide amounting to murder because Jack knifed Jill with the obvious intention of killing her and knowing that such an act is likely to cause death under ordinary circumstances 

D.) none of the above 

60.) Tushar and his friends play a birthday prank on Hari and abduct him and take him to an old abandoned factory and leave him confined there for a while. Is he liable for kidnapping? 

A.) ~No, it was just a prank. 

B.) yes, it is abduction as Hari was kidnapped and confined. 

C.) ~No, Hari was always safe. 

D.) ~Yes, Hari was scared. 

61.) Raju was a mental patient at the Centre for Mental Disorder Treatment and Studies, and escaped one day, a few weeks he was declared fit for release. He goes to his enemy Jay and hits his head hard against a wall, till Jay was knocked unconscious. Is Raju liable for the crime? 

A.) ~Yes, as he was mentally unfit and was roaming the streets. 

B.) ~No, as he did not intend to commit this act. 

C.) ~Yes, as he intended to commit the act. 

D.) no, as he did not have the required mental state or intent required by the IPC 

62.) B goes to A’s house for lunch and notices his wife’s beautiful ring lying on the table. He goes and hides the ring under A’s sofa itself and plans to take it later on and give it to his own wife. 

A.) ~B will be liable for theft only at the later date when he actually takes the ring. 

B.) ~B is not liable for theft at all. 

C.) B becomes liable for theft when he hides the ring. 

D.) ~B hid the ring in A’s house itself. So there was no theft as such and hence B cannot be held liable 

63.) Actus reus is: 

A.) ~criminal mind 

B.) criminal act 

C.) ~act of insane persons 

D.) ~act of God 

64.) Pure theory of law was put forward by: 

A.) ~HLA Hart 

B.) Hans Kelsen 

C.) ~Dworkin 

D.) ~Fuller 

65.) The legal theory that holds that the law is largely contradictory, and can be best analyzed as an expression of the policy goals of the dominant social group is: 

A.) ~Legal Realism 

B.) ~Legal Positivism 

C.) critical legal theory 

D.) natural theory of law 

66.) ____ distinguished law into four parts: eternal, natural, human and divine 

A.) ~Constantine 

B.) Aquinas 

C.) ~Juvenal 

D.) ~Hobbes 

67.) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is modelled after: 

A.) The US Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1980 

B.) The UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration, 1985 

C.) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1940 

D.) none of the above 

68.) an arbitral tribunal in india: 

A.) can rule on its own jurisdiction 

B.) is a quasi judicial body 

C.) both a and b 

D.) none of the above 

69.) an arbitral award 

A.) shall be made in writing 

B.) can also be made orally 

C.) both a and b are correct 

D.) only a is correct 

70.) Chapter ___ was introduced in the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, by Act No.37/2002 with effect from 11-06- 2002 providing for a Permanent LokAdalat to deal with pre-litigation, conciliation and settlement of disputes relating to Public Utility Services 

A.) XA 


C.) VIA 


71.) An advocate must not appear, act, plead, or practise before a court, tribunal, or any other authority mentioned in S.30 of the Advocates Act, if the sole or any member of the court, tribunal, or authority is related to the advocate as: 

A.) ~Mother 

B.) ~Son 

C.) ~First Cousin, grand-son, uncle, grandfather 

D.) all of the above 

72.) Part VI Chapter II of the Bar Council of India Rules deal with___ 

A.) ~Administration of the Bar Council 

B.) ~Maintenance of rolls 

C.) ~The Bar Examination 

D.) Professional Ethics of Advocates 

73.) An advocate does not owe a duty to- 

A.) ~Colleague 

B.) ~Court 

C.) ~Client 

D.) the Bar Council 

74.) An advocate cannot- 

A.) ~Edit legal text books at a salary; 

B.) ~Do press-vetting for newspapers; 

C.) ~Set and examine question papers 

D.) foment Litigation 

75.) What is the limitation period for filing a suit which does not fall under any of the categories mentioned in the Schedule of the Limitation Act? 

A.) one year 

B.) two years 

C.) three years 

D.) four years 

76.) In the Limitation Act, an applicant is: 

A.) ~the petitioner; 

B.) ~any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply; 

C.) ~any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as executor, administrator or other representative 

D.) all of the above 

77.) Minimum number of persons needed to form a public company is: 

A.) two 

B.) five 

C.) seven 

D.) nine 

78.) Share capital which is not called “preference share capital” is called: 

A.) ~Non-preference share capital 

B.) ~Debenture 

C.) equity share capital 

D.) ~Joint stock share capital 

79.) The following person can not be appointed as a manager of a company: 

A.) ~the person is an undischarged insolvent, or has at any time within the preceding five years been adjudged an insolvent 

B.) ~the person who suspends, or has at any time within the preceding five years suspended, payment to his creditors. 

C.) ~a person who is or has at any time within the preceding five years been, convicted by a Court in India of an offence involving moral turpitude. 

D.) all of the above 

80.) Under which of the following circumstances can a Company be wound up by the court? 

A.) ~if the company has, by special resolution, resolved that the company be wound up by the court 

B.) ~if default is made in delivering the statutory report to the Registrar or in holding the statutory meeting 

C.) ~if the company does not commence its business within a year from its incorporation, or suspends its business for a whole year; 

D.) all of the above 

81.) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 1986 was passed as a result of which of the following Judgments? 

A.) Shah Bano Judgement 

B.) ~Sharda Judgment 

C.) ~Arif Mohammad Khan Judgment 

D.) none of the above 

82.) The Family Courts Act was passed in: 

A.) 1997 

B.) 1972 

C.) 1984 

D.) 1973 

83.) Marriage effected under the Special Marriage Act would lead to the severance of the person marrying thus from his or her undivided family. For what all religions does this apply? 

A.) all 

B.) ~Hindu Muslim and Christian 

C.) ~Hindu, Muslim, Buddhist, Jain and Christian 

D.) Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist and Jain 

84.) In which year was Section 498A incorporated into the Indian penal Code? 

A.) 1997 

B.) 2005 

C.) 1983 

D.) 1987 

85.) The workmen of an industrial establishment go on a strike which is illegal, and the employer seeks damages as compensation from the workmen. Would a suit for damages lie? 

A.) ~No because such suit is restricted on the grounds of privity of contract 

B.) ~Yes because the workmen had called the strike illegally and as a result the employer had suffered financial harm 

C.) no, because the remedies for illegal strikes are found exclusively in S.26 of the Industrial Disputes Act 

D.) ~Yes, because inclusion of such a clause, regarding payment of damages in cases of illegal strikes are to be included mandatorily under the Industrial Disputes Act 

86.) In every factory wherein more than ________ number of workers are ordinarily employed, provisions shall be made for cool drinking water during hot weather by effective means and for distribution 

A.) 100 

B.) 30 

C.) 150 

D.) 250 

87.) No adult workers shall be required or allowed to work in a factory for more than ____ hours in any week. 

A.) 50 

B.) 48 

C.) 54 

D.) 45 

88.) A federation of registered trade unions seek to raise a trade dispute on behalf of the workmen of an industry. The respective constituent trade unions are registered trade unions, however, the federation itself is not a registered body under the Trade Unions Act. Can it sue on behalf of all the constituent trade unions? 

A.) Yes, because it is made of trade union which are individually registered 

B.) No, because a trade union cannot be considered a juristic person 

C.) No, because registration of trade unions are not compulsory 

D.) No, it does not enjoy the rights and privileges under the Trade Unions Act and cannot therefore sue on behalf of the workmen. 

89.) No person employed in public utility service can go on strike without giving a notice of __ weeks and within ___ days of giving such notice 

A.) 3, 10 

B.) 3, 14 

C.) 6,10 

D.) 6,14 

90.) If an employer intends to close down any undertaking (where more than 50 people are employed), the minimum period of notice which he must serve to his employees is: 

A.) 30 days 

B.) 60 days 

C.) 90 days 

D.) 120 days 

91.) Wage fixation by a Statutory Wage Board affects a large number of employers and employees and operates prospectively. It also chooses between competing claims put forth by employers and employees akin to a Labour Tribunal. Which of the following category does such action belong to? 

A.) Legislative function 

B.) Quasi-judicial function 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) Neither A nor B 

92.) Clauses which typically confer wide powers upon the delegated authority to make ‘Orders to remove difficulties’ in implementing the parent Act and are (without changing the essentialpolicy) are called______. 

A.) Authoritative Clauses 

B.) Sovereign Clauses 

C.) Henry VIII Clauses 

D.) None of the above 

93.) Illustration: Sec. 47(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act empowers the Regional Transport Authority to limit the number of stage carriage permits. The Authority’s decision was based on an official policy. This is an example of a …………….. function. 

A.) Administrative 

B.) Judicial 

C.) Quasi-judicial 

D.) Legislative 

94.) The Neighbour Principle was introduced in law of torts in the Judgment of___ 

A.) Hedley Byrne v. Heller 

B.) Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Company 

C.) Donoghue v. Stevenson 

D.) Ratlam Municipality v. Vardichand 

95.) A severe snow storm had caused snow to accumulate on defendant’s roof and no steps were taken to remove the snow or warn the public. The plaintiff was standing on the highway outside the defendant’s premises when she was injured by the fall of snow. She sued defendants for nuisance. Will she succeed? 

A.) Yes because the defendants had done nothing to abate the nuisance and their omission amounted to nuisance. 

B.) No, she should have been more careful. 

C.) No, it was an Act of God and the defendants could not foresee such storm to be prepared take steps to deal with its after-effects. 

D.) Both (b) and (c). 

96.) The owner of a dilapidated house contracted with the tenant to repair it but failed to do so. Tenant’s brother came for a visit and was fully aware of the dangers of living the dilapidated house. He (the brother) was injured by an accident caused by want of repair. He sued the owner for nuisance. Will he succeed? 

A.) No, he was not a party to the contract and he cannot make any tort law claims arising out of it 

B.) No, he was fully aware of the dangers involved and yet he went to live, thus forfeiting his right to sue 

C.) No, he should have been more cautious given that he was going to a dilapidated house and was fully aware of the dangers involved 

D.) All of the above 

97.) In law of torts, strict liability is the imposition of liability on a party without a finding of fault. In which Judgment was this doctrine introduced? 

A.) MC Mehta v. Union of India 

B.) Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India 

C.) Rylands v. Fletcher 

D.) R v. Hicklin 

98.) The Civil Law equivalent of torts is 

A.) tortum 

B.) private offence 

C.) delict 

D.) private liability 

99.) Lack of intention on the defendant’s part to defame Plaintiff is not a defense to the claim of libel. Which famous case upheld this doctrine? 

A.) Bird v. Jones 

B.) Hulton v. Jones 

C.) Bolton v. Jones 

D.) White v. Jones 

100.) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986, applies to all goods and services, excluding: 

A.) goods for resale or commercial purpose 

B.) services rendered free of charge 

C.) services rendered under any contract for personal service 

D.) all of the above 

Answer Key

1.) A 2.) B 3.) A 4.) C 5.) B 6.) D 7.) D 8.) A 9.) C 10.) B 11.) D 12.) C 13.) D 14.) B 15.) D 16.) D 17.) B 18.) C 19.) B 20.) A 21.) B 22.) D 23.) B 24.) D 25.) C 26.) C 27.) D 28.) A 29.) D 30.) A 31.) C 32.) D 33.) D 34.) C 35.) D 36.) A 37.) C 38.) A 39.) A 40.) A 41.) A 42.) A 43.) C 44.) D 45.) B 46.) C 47.) C 48.) B 49.) D 50.) A 51.) B 52.) B 53.) B 54.) A 55.) C 56.) D 57.) D 58.) A 59.) B 60.) B 61.) D 62.) A 63.) B 64.) B 65.) C 66.) B 67.) B 68.) C 69.) D 70.) C 71.) D 72.) D 73.) A 74.) A 75.) C 76.) D 77.) C 78.) C 79.) D 80.) D 81.) A 82.) C 83.) A 84.) C 85.) C 86.) D 87.) B 88.) B 89.) D 90.) C 91.) C 92.) A 93.) A 94.) C 95.) C 96.) C 97.) C 98.) C 99.) B 100.) D 

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