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AIBE: Mock test 7, Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.

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Mock Test 7 

1.) ____ is the process whereby interested parties resolve disputes, agree upon courses of action, bargain for individual or collective advantage, and/or attempt to craft outcomes which serve their mutual interests 

A.) expert determination 

B.) arbitration 

C.) conciliation 

D.) negotiation 

2.) “the fundamental aim of legal ethics is to maintain the honour and dignity of the Law profession, to secure a spirit of friendly co-operation between the bench and the bar in the promotion of the highest standards of justice, to establish honourable and fair dealing of the council with his client opponent and witnesses; to establish a spirit of brotherhood in the bar itself; and to secure that lawyers discharge their responsibilities to the community generally” whose statement is this? 

A.) Chief Justice Marshall 

B.) Chief Justice Coke 

C.) Chief Justice Halsbury 

D.) Chief Justice Bacon 

3.) the Supreme Court has held that an advocate cannot claim a lein over a litigation file entrusted to him for his fees ….. no professional can be given the right to withdraw the returnable records related to the work done by him with his clients matter on the strength of any claim for unpaid remuneration. the alternate is the professional concerned can resort to other legal remedies for such unpaid remuneration. refer to the specific case 

A.) R.D. Sexena Vs Balram Prasad Sharma 

B.) V.C. Rangadurai Vs D. Gopalan 

C.) Emperor Vs Dadu Ram 

D.) G. Narayan Swami Vs Challapalli 

4.) Duty of an advocate towards his client is detailed out in which rules of the Bar Council of India 

A.) 33 to 38 

B.) 11 to 33 

C.) 23 to 27 

D.) 33 to 36 

5.) which section under the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with the disqualification as to enrolment 

A.) Section 25A 

B.) Section 26A 

C.) Section 27A 

D.) Section 24A 

6.) Existence of two suits, by parties litigating under the same title,” one previously instituted which is pending at present and the other filed later, wherein the matter in issue in the subsequently filed suit is directly and substantially in issue in the other and the relief claimed in the subsequent suit can effectively be passed by the court of previous instance. which section of CPC decides the fate of subsequently filed suit and its proceeding? 

A.) Section 11 

B.) Section 9 

C.) Section 10 

D.) Section 12 

7.) Where there are mutual debts between the plaintiff and the defendant , one debt may be settled against another. this can be a statutory defence to a plaintiff action and it is called as 

A.) cross-claim 

B.) set-off 

C.) cross-demand 

D.) cross-decrees 

8.) An attachment before judgement order takes away 

A.) right to ownership 

B.) right to file suit 

C.) power to alienate the property 

D.) capacity of execution of a decree 

9.) The three pillars on which foundation of every order of injunction rests 

A.) prima facie case, injury with damage and balance of inconvenience 

B.) prima facie case, repairable injury and balance of convenience 

C.) prima facie case, irreparable injury and balance of convenience 

D.) prima facie case, damage without injury and balance of convenience 

10.) _____ is to enable subordinate courts to obtain in non-appealable cases the opinion of the High Court in the absence of a question of law and thereby avoid the commission of an error which could not be remedied later on. 

A.) review 

B.) reference 

C.) appeal 

D.) revision 

11.) Who decided as to which of the several modes he/she will execute the decree 

A.) plaintiff 

B.) court 

C.) judgement debtor 

D.) decree holder 

12.) Where a party to a suit requires information as to facts from the opposite party, he may administer to his own adversary a series of questions. It is called as 

A.) question petition 

B.) question pamphlet 

C.) interrogatories 

D.) discovery 

13.) _________ is a suit filed by or against one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having the same interest in the suit. 

A.) joint suit 

B.) represtative suit 

C.) collusive suit 

D.) collective suit 

14.) a person appointed by the court to protect, preserve and manage the property during the pendency of the litigation 

A.) amicus curiae 

B.) preserver 

C.) protector 

D.) receiver 

15.) the provision under CPC that relates to suit by indigent persons 

A.) order 32 

B.) order 34 

C.) order 35 

D.) order 33 

16.) Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 enables the court to condone the delay in filing _________ on sufficient satisfaction of sufficient cause. 

A.) appeal or application 

B.) appeal, suit and application 

C.) appeal, petition and counter petition 

D.) appeal, petition, suit and counter petition 

17.) Limitation period prescribed in filing a suit by a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property mortgaged 

A.) 20 years 

B.) 12 years 

C.) 10 years 

D.) 30 years 

18.) Which are the provision under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that deals with relevancy of opinion of experts 

A.) Sections 49 and 50 

B.) Sections 23 and 24 

C.) Sections 45 and 46 

D.) Sections 81 and 82 

19.) The contents of documents may be proved either by 

A.) Primary evidence or by secondary evidence 

B.) Direct evidence or by circumstantial evidence 

C.) primary evidence or documentary evidence 

D.) primary evidence or direct evidence 

20.) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by someone who has himself seen it is 

A.) Direct evidence 

B.) circumstantial evidence 

C.) best evidence 

D.) secondary evidence 

21.) “The DNA Test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under Section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof”. It was so held in which case 

A.) Shaikh Fakruddin v. Shaikh Mohammad Hasan AIR 2006 AP 48 

B.) Siddaramesh v. State of Karnataka (2010) 3 SCC 152 

C.) Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 2007 SC 107 

D.) Somwanti v. State of Punjab, 1963 AIR 151 

22.) The statements of dead persons are relevant under which provisions 

A.) Section 48 

B.) Section 49 

C.) Section 32 (4) 

D.) Section 13 (a) 

23.) “Witnesses are the eyes and ears of justice”. Whose statement is this 

A.) Lord Atkin 

B.) Bentham 

C.) Lord Denning 

D.) Phipson 

24.) An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is a 

A.) presumption of fact 

B.) presumption of law 

C.) conclusive proof 

D.) none of the above 

25.) Patent ambiguity in interpreting documents renders it 

A.) curable 

B.) in-curable 

C.) curable and in-curable 

D.) none of the above 

26.) Promoting enmity bteween different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is an offence under which provisions of the Indian Penal Code 

A.) Section 120A 

B.) Section 120B 

C.) Section 153A 

D.) Section 226 

27.) The gist of this offence is meeting of minds 

A.) Section 120A 

B.) Section 133 

C.) Section 221 

D.) Section 340 

28.) A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells B that they will fire at B if B attempts to leave the building. What is the offence commited by A as against B 

A.) wrongful restrain 

B.) wrongful confinement 

C.) refusal to leave the place 

D.) none of the above 

29.) Adulteration of food or drinks intended for sale is punishable under 

A.) Section 227 

B.) Section 272 

C.) Section 277 

D.) Section 273 

30.) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to deter public servant from his duty is 

A.) cognizable and non-bailable offene 

B.) non-cognizable and bailable offence 

C.) cognizable and bailable offence 

D.) none of the above 

31.) A obtains property from Z by saying-“Your child is in the hands of my gang and will be put death unless you send us Rupees 10,000”. This offence is 

A.) Robbery 

B.) Extortion 

C.) Dacoity 

D.) none of the above 

32.) Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the magistrate to record confessions and statements? 

A.) Section 164 

B.) Section 162 

C.) Section 163 

D.) Section 164 A 

33.) Any police officer may without any order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty, or who has escaped, or attempts to escape from lawful custody under which section 

A.) Section 41 (a) 

B.) Section 41 (c) 

C.) Section 41 (e) 

D.) Section 41 (d) 

34.) The plea bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of 

A.) 7 years 

B.) 2 years 

C.) 10 years 

D.) 5 years 

35.) The right to lodge a caveat is provided under which section of CPC 

A.) Section 148 

B.) Section 148 A 

C.) Section 153 

D.) Section 153 A 

36.) Which of the following is stated under section 100 of CPC 

A.) An appeal may lie under this section from an appellate decree passed ex parte 

B.) In an appeal under this section, the memorandum of appeal shall precisely state the substantial question of law involved in the appeal. 

C.) Where the High Court is satisfied that a substantial question of law is involved in any case, it shall formulate that question 

D.) All of the above 

37.) An appeal lies to the Supreme Court of India under Section 109 CPC in the case if 

A.) that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance 

B.) that in the opinion of the High Court the said question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court 

C.) both a and b are correct 

D.) only b is correct 

38.) The rejection of plaint is defined under 

A.) order 7 rule 11 

B.) order 7 rule 12 

C.) order 7 rule 13 

D.) order 7 rule 14 

39.) Criminal conspiracy has been defined under which Section of IPC 

A.) 120 A 

B.) 120 B 

C.) both a and b 

D.) none of a and b 

40.) The provisions for emergency has been defined under which chapter of the Indian Constitution 

A.) 17 

B.) 18 

C.) 19 

D.) 20 

41.) The punishment for defamation has been defined in which Section of CPC 

A.) 499 

B.) 500 

C.) 501 

D.) both a and b 

42.) Fundamental duties has been taken from the constitution of which country 

A.) U.S.A. 

B.) USSR 

C.) U.K. 

D.) Australia 

43.) A  party to the suit is called 

A.) accused 

B.) plaintiff 

C.) litigant 

D.) complainant 

44.) The temporary release of a prisioner is called 

A.) parole 

B.) amnesty 

C.) discharge 

D.) pardon 

45.) In the year 2002 the competition act was enacted replacing 

A.) trade marks act 

B.) copyright act 

C.) contract act 

D.) MRTP act 

46.) The Supreme court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case 

A.) State of Maharashtra vs. Prafull B.Desai 

B.) paramjit kaur vs. state of punjab 

C.) pappu yadav vs stae of bihar 

D.) bachan singh vs. state of punjab 

47.) The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before the court of law is called 

A.) right in rem 

B.) right in personam 

C.) fundamental rights 

D.) locus standi 

48.) Under which section police has the power to arrest without warrant 

A.) S.41 

B.) S.42 

C.) S.41D 

D.) S.43 

49.) In which section criminal conspiracy is defined 

A.) S.120A 

B.) S.120B 

C.) S.52A 

D.) S.229A 

50.) In which section concealing design to commit offence punishable with imprisonment 

A.) S.120 

B.) S.115 

C.) S.118 

D.) S.119 

51.) A debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and he makes a payment which is insufficient to satisfy all the debts . in such a case, question arises as to which particular debt the paymnt is to be appropriated. which sections of the contract Act provide an answer to this question 

A.) section 59 to 61 

B.) section 22 of 31 

C.) section 10 to 12 

D.) section 55 to 60 

52) What property cannot be transferred under S.6 of Transfer of Property act, 1882 

A.) an easement apart from the dominant heritage 

B.) an interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally 

C.) a right to future maintenance, in whatsoever manner arising, secured or determined 

D.) all of the above 

53.) A transfers property of which he is the owner to B in trust for A and his intended wife successively for their lives, and, after the death of the survivor, for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for A’s second son. can the interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son take effect? 

A.) yes 

B.) no 

C.) it is a valid transfer 

D.) none of the above 

54.) The commencement of arbitral proceedings is not dependant on interim relief being allowed or denied under S.9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Supreme court in which cases held so 

A.) Firm ashok traders & anothers v. Gurumukh das saluja 7 others 

B.) M.M.T.C ltd v. sterile Industries (India) ltd 

C.) Natinal thermal power corporation v flowmore (P) ltd 

D.) magma leasing ltd v. NEPC Mico Ltd 

55.) Which provision of the hindu marriage act, 1955 deals with conciliation 

A.) S.23 

B.) S.23(2) 

C.) S.23(3) 

D.) S.22 

56.) Which section under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the settlement of disputes outside the court 

A.) S.98 

B.) S.99 

C.) S.89 

D.) S.88 

57.) Equal pay for Equal work-can be enforced through 

A.) Art.39 

B.) Art.14&16 

C.) Art.311 

D.) Art.309 

58.) The executive power of every state shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws -mentioned underA.) Art.32 

B.) Art.256 

C.) Art.254 

D.) Art.301 

59.) Justice Ramanandan committee relates to 

A.) Union state relations 

B.) creamy lawyer 

C.) finance commission 

D.) elections 

60.) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme court is dealt under 

A.) Art.226 

B.) Art.130 

C.) Art.131 

D.) Art.124 

61.) Laws declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts-mentioned under 

A.) Art.142 

B.) Art.143 

C.) Art.136 

D.) Art.141 

62.) According to the theory of ‘social utilitarianism’ as propounded by ilhering 

A.) the greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure 

B.) the essential body of legal rule is always based upon social facts of law 

C.) a balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society 

D.) law is a means to social ends 

63.) Obstructing public servant in charge of his public functions is a 

A.) non bailable offence 

B.) bailable offence 

C.) civil wrong 

D.) none of the above 

64.) Compensation to victim of crime under criminal law relates to 

A.) S.336 

B.) S.331 

C.) S.335 

D.) S.357 

65.) What person may be charged jointly and tried together under S.223 of CrPc 

A.) persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction 

B.) person accused of an offence and person accused of an abetment of or attempt to commit such offence 

C.) person accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction 

D.) all of the above 

66.) “Contravention of contract labour Act would not create an employment relationship between contract labour and principal establishment “. it was so held in which case 

A.) SAIL vs. National Union Water front Workers 

B.) Air India STatutory corporation vs. United Labour Union & Ors 

C.) Bangalore water supply and sewerage Board vs. A.rajappa 

D.) State of U.P vs jai bir singh 

67.) The principal regulator envisaged under the Trade Union Act, 1926 

A.) regulator of trade union 

B.) inspector of trade union 

C.) registrar of trade union 

D.) industrial relations committee 

68.) A teacher is not a workman falling under the category of Workman under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. this was upheld in which case 

A.) Miss A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman and Diu & others 

B.) Ahmedbad Pvt. Primary teachers Association v. Administrative officer and ors 

C.) University of Deldi v. Ramnath 

D.) Secretary, Madras Gymkhana club Employees Union v. Management of The Gymkhana 

69.) The type of disablement envisaged under the Employees Compensation Act that reduces the capacity to work in any employment similar to that the worker was performing at the time of the accident is referred to as 

A.) Permanent partial disablement 

B.) Permanent total disablement 

C.) temporary disablement 

D.) Temporary total disablement 

70.) The contribution payable under the ESI Act in respect of an employee shall compromise of 

A.) contribution payable by the employer only 

B.) contibution payable by the employee only 

C.) contribution payable by government only 

D.) contribution payable by employer and employee 

71.) Which provision under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 guarantees the right of workmen laid off to claim for compensation 

A.) S.25-0 

B.) S.26 

C.) S25-C 

D.) S.25-M 

72.) Natural law is the idea that 

A.) there are rational objective limits to the power of legislative rulers 

B.) there are no limit to the power of legislative rulers 

C.) there are limits to the power of the executive laid by the legislature 

D.) law is the command of the sovereign 

73.) H.L.A Hart’s name is associated with the book 

A.) Province and Function of law 

B.) The Concept of law 

C.) Social Dimensions of law 

D.) Theories of Social Change 

74.) Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act,1955 deals with 

A.) Restitution of Conjugal Rights 

B.) Void Marriages 

C.) Judicial separation 

D.) Ground of divorce 

75.) Daughter is equated with the son with reference to joint family property under 

A.) Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2002 

B.) Hindu Succession Amnedment Act 1976 

C.) Hindu Succession Amendment Act 1978 

D.) Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005 

76.) Mubara’at under muslim law refers to 

A.) Divorce at the instance of wife 

B.) Cruelty 

C.) Dissolution of marraige with mutual consent 

D.) Ila 

77.) The discrimination aspects of S.10 of Indian Divroce Act(now divorce act) was removed by substituting new section by the 

A.) Indian Divorce Amendment Act of 2001 

B.) Divorce Amendment Act of 2002 

C.) Indian Divorce Amendment Act of 2006 

D.) Indian Divorce Amendment Act of 2012 

78.) Trading activities of a company were stopped temporarily in view of the trade depression with an intention to continue the same when the conditions improve. A petition was preffered into the tribunal for winding up of the company. The petition 

A.) Is liable to be dismissed 

B.) will succeed 

C.) will be kept pending till the conditions improve 

D.) will not be admitted 

79.) Amalgamation of Companies in National Interest is dealt under 

A.) Section 388 of the companies act 

B.) Section 378 of the companies act 

C.) Section 396 of the companies act 

D.) Section 390 of the companies act 

80.) Under Section 171 of the Companies Act, a general meeting of a company may be called by giving a notice in writing for not less than 

A.) 21 days 

B.) 30 days 

C.) 40 days 

D.) 14 days 

81.) A private limited company limits the number of members to 

A.) 30 

B.) 200 

C.) 40 

D.) 150 

82.) Contributory negligence means 

A.) The failure by a person to use reasonable care for the safety of either of himself or his property 

B.) Volunteer to pay the negligence of others 

C.) Contributing the money or money’s worth for others wrongs 

D.) Inciting others to commit civil wrong 

83.) Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example in escape of the toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which opeate visa vis-a-vis the tortious principal of strict libility- Heldin the case of 

A.) Francis caroli Vs state 

B.) Shriram food and fertiliser case 

C.) PUCl vs Unon of India 

D.) state of punjab Vs. Mahinder Singh Chawla 

84.) ” A tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is an action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively the breach of a contract, or the breach of a trust, or the breach the breach of merely equitable obligation”- whose statement is this 

A.) winfield 

B.) Salmond 

C.) Pollick 

D.) Griffith 

85.) Under section 20 of the M.V. Act. If a peson is convicted of an offence punishable under section 189 of the Motor vehicleAct, the court shall ordinarily order for 

A.) imposing penalty only 

B.) punishment only 

C.) both punishment and penality 

D.) Disqualification under the act 

86.) Consumer Protection Act was brought into operation in the year 

A.) 1987 

B.) 1986 

C.) 1985 

D.) 1984 

87.) Under consumer protection act, the jursidiction of the district forum should not exceed rupees 

A.) fifty thousand 

B.) twenty five thousand 

C.) one lakh 

D.) twenty lakhs 

88.) The second principle of Rule of Law (of A.V.dicey) relates to 

A.) Equalprotection of the laws 

B.) Equality before law 

C.) dignity of the individual 

D.) Administrative courts 

89.) If a Quasi-Judicial authority violates the principles of natural justice, the appropriate writ would be 

A.) mandamus 

B.) habeas corpus 

C.) quo warranto 

D.) certiorari 

90.) A seven member bench of the supreme court unanimously struck down clauses 2(d) of Art.323 A and clause 3(d) of Art 323B of the constitution relating to tribunals which excluded the jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court. The court held that power of judicial review over legislative action is vested over high court under Art.226 and in the supreme court Under Art.32. This is an integral part of the basic structure of the constitution. Name the case 

A.) L.chandra kumar vs union of India 

B.) kihota hollohan vs zachillhu 

C.) nagraj vs State of A.P. 

D.) rajendra sing rana vsswami prasad maurya 

91.) Accepting any other satisfaction than the performane originally agreed is known as 

A.) reciprocal agreement 

B.) reciprocal acceptance 

C.) reciprocal accord and satisfaction 

D.) accord and satisfaction 

92.) “Where two parties have made a contract which one of them has broken the damage which the other party ought to receive in respect of such breach of contract should be either such as may fairly and reasonably be considered arising naturally i.e. according to the usual course of things from such breach of contract itself or such as may reasonably be supposed to have been in the contemplation of the parties at the time they made the contract as the probable result of breach of it” In which case the principle ws down so 

A.) clegg v hands 

B.) kapur chand v. himayat ali khan 

C.) frost v.knight 

D.) hadley v baxendale 

93.) When a misrepresentation has been made, what are the alternative courses open to an aggrieved 

A.) He can avoid or rescind the contract 

B.) he can affirm the contract and insist on the misrepresentation being made 

C.) he can rely on upon the misrepresentation, as a defence to an action on the contract 

D.) all of the above 

94.) A Solicitor sold certain property to one of his clients. The client subsequently alleged that the property was considerably overvalued and his consent was caused by _______. The court considered the relation between the parties to reach the decision. 

A.) Coercion 

B.) Misrepresentation 

C.) Undue Influence 

D.) Estoppel 

95.) “The law of contract is intended to ensure that what a man has been led to expect shall come to pass, that what has been promised shall be performed”. Whose statement is this? 

A.) Lord Black 

B.) Henderson 

C.) Anson 

D.) Salmond 

96.) Intention not to create a legal obligation was clear from the conduct of the parties which among the popular cases deals on the topic. 

A.) Balfour v. Balfour 

B.) Dobogue v. Stevenson 

C.) Derry v. Peek 

D.) Birch v. Birch 

97.) According to the Indian Law in a lawful contract, consideration 

A.) must move from promisee only 

B.) may move from promisee or any other person 

C.) is not necessary at all 

D.) none of the above 

98.) Raghav owes Murli Rupees 10,000. This debt is time barred by the Limitation Act. Even then Murli, promises in writing to pay Raghav Rupees 4,500 on account of debt and signs the document. This contract is 

A.) enforceable 

B.) unenforceable 

C.) void 

D.) none of the above 

99.) An agency can be terminated by 

A.) Expiry of time 

B.) Death of either party 

C.) Fulfilment of object 

D.) all of the above 

100.) Which type of loss is not covered by a contract of indemnity 

A.) Loss arising from accidents like fire or perils of the sea 

B.) loss caused by the promisor himself or by a third party 

C.) loss arising by human agency 

D.) none of the above 

Answers 

1.) D 2.) A 3.) A 4.) B 5.) D 6.) C 7.) B 8.) C 9.) C 10.) B 11.) D 12.) C 13.) B 14.) D 15.) D 16.) A 17.) D 18.) C 19.) A 20.) D 21.) A 22.) C 23.) B 24.) B 25.) C 26.) C 27.) A 28.) A 29.) A 30.) A 31.) B 32.) A 33.) C 34.) A 35.) B 36.) D 37.) C 38.) A 39.) A 40.) B 41.) B 42.) B 43.) B 44.) A 45.) A 46.) A 47.) D 48.) A 49.) A 50.) A 51.) A 52.) D 53.) A 54.) A 55.) B 56.) C 57.) B 58.) B 59.) B 60.) C 61.) D 62.) A 63.) B 64.) D 65.) D 66.) A 67.) A 68.) A 69.) B 70.) D 71.) C 72.) A 73.) B 74.) A 75.) D 76.) C 77.) A 78.) D 79.) C 80.) A 81.) B 82.) A 83.) B 84.) B 85.) D 86.) B 87.) D 88.) B 89.) A 90.) A 91.) D 92.) D 93.) D 94.) B 95.) C 96.) A 97.) B 98.) C 99.) D 100.) B 


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