AIBE: Mock test 8, Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.

Mock Test 8 

1.) Which classification of offence comes under criminal procedure code 

A.) COGNIZABLE AND NON-COGNIZABLE 

B.) BAILABLE AND NON-BAILABLE 

C.) SUMMONS CASES AND WARRANT CASES 

D.) ALL OF THE ABOVE 

2.) COGNIZABLE OFFENCE UNDER IPC HAS BEEN DEFINED 

A.) UNDER SECTION 2(a) OF Cr PC 

B.) UNDER SECTION 2(c) OF cRPC 

C.) UNDER SECTION 2(i) OF CRPC 

D.) UNDER SECTION 2(1) OF CRPC 

3.) NON COGNIZABLE OFFENCE HAS BEEN DEFINED 

A.) UNDER SECTION 2(a) 

B.) UNDER SECTION 2(c) 

C.) UNDER SECTION 2(i) 

D.) UNDER SECTION 2(l) 

4.) IN A BAILABLE OFFENCE, THE BAIL IS GRANTED AS A MATTER OF RIGHT 

A.) BY THE POLICE OFFICER 

B.) BY THE COURT 

C.) BOTH BY THE POLICE AND THE COURT 

D.) EITHER a or b 

5.) COMPLAINT AS PROVIDED UNDER SECTION 2(d) OF CrPC 

A.) CAN BE IN WRITING ONLY 

B.) CAN BE ORAL 

C.) EITHER IN WRITING OR ORAL 

D.) CAN BE BY GESTURES 

6.) IS IT MANDATORY TO PRODUCE THE PERSON ARRESTED BEFORE THE MAGISTRATE, WITHIN 24 HOURS OF HIS HOURS, UNDER 

A.) SECTION 56 OF CrPC 

B.) SECTION 57 OF CrPC 

C.) SECTION 58 OF CrPC 

D.) SECTION 59 OF CrPC 

7.) SECTION 91 OF CrPC DOES NOT APPLY TO 

A.) THE COMPLAINANT 

B.) THE ACCUSED 

C.) THE WITNESS 

D.) THE PERSON WHO IS NEITHER A COMPLAINANT NOR AN ACCUSED NOR A WITNESS 

8.) A REFUSAL TO ANSWER QUESTIONS PUT TO A WITNESS UNDER SECTION 161 CrPC IS AN OFFENCE UNDER 

A.) SECTION 176 IPC 

B.) SECTION 179 IPC 

C.) SECTION 187 IPC 

D.) NONE OF THE ABOVE 

9.) THE INVESTIGATING OFFICER DURING THE INVESTIGATION RECORDS THE STATEMENTS OF A WITNESS UNDER 

A.) SECTION 160 CRPC 

B.) SECTION 162 CRPC 

C.) SECTION 161 CRPC 

D.) SECTION 164 CRPC 

10.) A STATEMENT OF A WITNESS RECORDED UNDER SECTION 161 OF CRPC, IN WRITING DURING INVESTIGATION AND IS SIGNED BY THE PERSON MAKING THE STATEMENT IS HIT BY 

A.) SECTION 161(2) CRPC 

B.) SECTION 161(3) CRPC 

C.) SECTION 162(1) CRPC 

D.) SECTION 162(2) CRPC 

11.) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS IRRELEVANT FACT UNDER EVIDENCE ACT, 1872? 

A.) FACTS REGARDING MOTIVE 

B.) FACTS REGARDING STATEMENTS WITHOUT RELATED CONDUCT 

C.) FACTS REGARDING STATEMENTS CLUBBED WOTH CONDUCT 

D.) FACTS WHICH MAKE OTHER RELEVANT FACT AS HIGHLY PROBABLE 

12.) TEST OF COMPETENCY OF WITNESS IS 

A.) HER BEING INTELLIGENT 

B.) MUST BE MAJOR 

C.) UNDERSTANDING THE NATURE OF QUESTION 

D.) CAPABLE OF UNDERSTANDING THE NATURE OF QUESTION AND GIVING RATIONAL ANSWER 

13.) WHICH ONE IS EXCEPTION TO ‘RULE OF HEARSAY’ EVIDENCE 

A.) DYING DECLARATION 

B.) FACTS FORMING PART OF SAME TRANSACTION 

C.) FACTS FORMING PLEA OF ALIBI 

D.) FACTS REGARDING CHARACTER OF ACCUSE 

14.) COMMUNICATION BETWEEN HUSBAND AND WIFE IS TREATED AS PRIVILEGED IF COMMUNICATION: 

A.) WAS MADE DURING MARRIAGE WITH PROMISE OF CONFIDENTIALITY 

B.) WAS MADE DURING MARRIAGE, EVEN WITHOUT PROMISE OF CONFIDENTIALITY 

C.) WAS MADE BEFORE MARRIAGE WITH PROMISE OF CONFIDENTIALITY 

D.) IS MADE AFTER MARRIAGE 

15.) LEADING QUESTIONS CAN BE ASKED EVEN WITHOUT PERMISSION OF COURT DURING 

 

A.) EXAMINATION IN CHIEF 

B.) CROSS EXAMINATION 

C.) RE EXAMINATION 

D.) A and C only 

16.) WHAT DO YOU MEAN BY WORD EVIDENCE? 

A.) EVERY FACT CONNECTED WITH CASE 

B.) FACTS INTRODUCED IN COURT OF LAW 

C.) BOTH 

D.) NONE 

17.) WHAT IS FACT IN ISSUE? 

A.) FACTS INVOLVED INDIRECTLY 

B.) NECESSARY FACTS TO ARRIVE OR DETERMINE 

C.) BOTH 

D.) NONE 

18.) RELEVANT FACT IS? 

A.) FACTS LOGICALLY RELEVANT TO ANY FACT IN ISSUE 

B.) FACTS LEGALLY RELEVANT TO ANY FACT IN ISSUE 

C.) BOTH 

D.) NONE 

19.) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CORRECT OF A STANDARD FORM CONTRACT? 

A.) IT IS A VALID CONTRACT 

B.) ONE PARTY HAS NO CHOICE BUT TO ACCEPT AND SIGN THE CONTRACT 

C.) BOTH A AND B 

D.) THE CONSENT IS NOT A FREE CONSENT 

20.) AS A GENERAL RULE, AN AGREEMENT MADE WITHOUT CONSIDERATION IS- 

A.) VOID 

B.) VOIDABLE 

C.) VALID 

D.) UNLAWFUL 

21.) A CONTINGENT AGREEMENT BASED ON AN IMPOSSIBLE EVENT UNDER SECTION 36 IS – 

A.) VOID 

B.) VOID TILL IMPOSSIBLE IS KNOWN 

C.) VOID WHEN EVEN BECOMES IMPOSSIBE 

D.) VOIDABLE 

22.) THE CONSENSUS AD-IDEM MEANS? 

A.) GENERAL CONSENSUS 

B.) REACHING AN AGREEMENT 

C.) MEETING OF MINDS UPON THE SAME THING 

D.) ALL OF THE ABOVE 

23.) IN FAMOUS CARLILL V. CARBOLIC SMOKE BALL CO. (1893) 1 QBD 256, THE HON’BLE COURT HELD THAT THE CONTRACT WAS ACCEPTED ON BEING – 

A.) COMMUNICATED 

B.) ACTED UPON 

C.) REFUSED 

D.) ADVERTISED 

24.) INADEQUACY OF CONSIDERATION DOES NOT MAKE THE CONTRACT – 

A.) VOID 

B.) VOIDABLE 

C.) UNENFORCEABLE 

D.) NEITHER VOID NOR VOIDABLE 

25.) A JUS IN PERSONAM MEANS A RIGHT AGAINST – 

A.) A SPECIFIC PERSON 

B.) THE PUBLIC AT LARGE 

C.) A SPECIFIC THING 

D.) NONE OF THE ABOVE 

26.) EXPOSURE OF GOODS BY A SHOPKEEPER IS – 

A.) OFFER FOR SALE 

B.) INVITATION TO OFFER 

C.) OFFER 

D.) ACCEPTANCE 

27.) The concept of Fundamental Duties was taken from which country? 

A.) USA 

B.) IRISH 

C.) USSR 

D.) AUSTRALIA 

28.) The directive principles of state policy are inspired by the: 

A.) German constitution 

B.) Irish constitution 

C.) US constitution 

D.) Australian constitution 

29.) Which schedule of the constitution mentions anti-defection provisions? 

A.) First 

B.) fifth 

C.) eighth 

D.) tenth 

30.) Which is not an essential for a valid contract 

A.) proposal 

B.) acceptance 

C.) consideration 

D.) meeting 

31.) A and B enter into a contract. As per the provisions of the contract A promises to deliever 200kg of rice within a specified period of time.However, during the transfer of rice by ship, the ship sinks.What kind of contract is this 

A.) Quasi Contract 

B.) Voidable contract 

C.) Contigent Contract 

D.) Revokable Contract 

32.) Under order XVI of the CPC, list of witnesses for both parties are to be presented by both the parties within ___ days of the date on which the issues are settled: 

A.) 15 

B.) 30 

C.) 14 

D.) 60 

33.) Which of the following statements are not relatable to the expressions defined in Section 3 of the evidence act 

A.) ~That a man has a certain reputation, is a fact. 

B.) court includes arbitrators 

C.) ~Fact includes any mental condition of which a person is conscious of 

D.) ~A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved. 

34.) A is accused of murdering B. The following facts are established in trial: A was spotted approaching B’s house a few minutes before the murder. A was seen carrying a knife. A’s knife was blood stained when he came out of B’s house. What sort of evidence are these, in the parlance of Indian Evidence Act? 

A.) ~Primary Evidence 

B.) ~Secondary Evidence 

C.) circumstantial evidence 

D.) direct evidence 

35.) Who said “law and society developed from status to contract”? 

A.) ~Rousseau 

B.) ~HLA Hart 

C.) ~Kelsen 

D.) Sir Henry Maine 

36.) Who is known as the pioneer of Historical School of law 

A.) Jermy Bentam 

B.) Austin 

C.) Ihering 

D.) Savigny 

37.) Which of the following were among the thinkers in the Social Contract Theory 

A.) Hobbes 

B.) Rousseau 

C.) BOTH A AND B 

D.) Aristotle 

38.) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act 1986 was passed as a result of which of the following Judgments? 

A.) Shah Bano Judgement 

B.) ~Sharda Judgment 

C.) ~Arif Mohammad Khan Judgment 

D.) none of the above 

39.) WHEN WAS THE ADVOCATE ACT INTRODUCED? 

A.) 1962 

B.) 1959 

C.) 1961 

D.) 1966 

40.) THE BAR COUNCIL OF INDIA CONSIST OF FOLLOWING AS EX-OFFICIO MEMBER 

A.) ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA 

B.) SOLICITOR GENERAL OF INDIA 

C.) BOTH A AND B 

D.) NONE OF THE ABOVE 

41.) INDIAN BAR COMMITTEE WAS CONSTITUTED FIRST TIME UNDER THE CHAIRMANSHIP OF SIR ADWARD CHAMIER IN THE YEAR- 

A.) 1927 

B.) 1961 

C.) 1949 

D.) 1923 

42.) POWER OF DISCIPLINARY COMMITTEE UNDER THE ADVOCATE ACT IS PROVIDED UNDER 

A.) SECTION 42 

B.) SECTION 53 

C.) SECTION 40 

D.) SECTION 36 

43.) THE INDIAN COUNSIL OF ARBITRATION WAS ESTABLISHED IN 

A.) 1956 

B.) 1976 

C.) 1965 

D.) 1996 

44.) LEX ARBITRI MEANS 

A.) ARBITRAL TRIBUNAL SITTING IN INDIA CAN APPLY THE BUY THE SINGAPORE 

B.) JUST LAW 

C.) ARBITRARY LAW 

D.) NONE OF THE ABOVE 

45.) IN INDIA THE ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION ACT WAS ENACTED IN 

A.) 1992 

B.) 1993 

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C.) 1994 

D.) 1996 

46.) SECTION 10 SUB SECTION (i) OF THE ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION ACT TALKS ABOUT 

A.) POWER OF ARBITRATION 

B.) NUMBERS OF ARBITRATORS 

C.) CAPACITY OF ARBITRATIONS 

D.) NONE OF THE ABOVE 

47.) FOREIGN COURT UNDER SECTION 2(5) OF CPC MEANS 

A.) A COURT SITUATED OUTSIDE INDIA 

B.) A COURT SITUATED OUTSIDE INDIA THE AUTHORITY OF GOVERNMENT OF INDIA 

C.) A COURT SITUATED IN INDIA APPLYING FOREIGN LAW 

D.) ALL OF THESE 

48.) JUDGEMENT UNDER SECTION 2(9) MEANS – 

A.) A DECREE 

B.) DISMISSAL OF AN APPEAL 

C.) STATEMENT OF GROUNDS OF AN ORDER OR DECREE 

D.) ALL THE ABOVE 

49.) PRINCIPLE OF RES-SUB JUDICE IS PROVIDED IN 

A.) SECTION 10 CPC 

B.) SECTION 11 CPC 

C.) SECTION 13 CPC 

D.) SECTION 14 CPC 

50.) DOCTRINE OF RES-JUDICATA AS CONTAINED IN SECTION 11 OF CPC IS BASED ON THE MAXIM 

A.) NEMO DEBET LIS VEXARI PRO UNO ETEADEM CAUSA 

B.) INTEREST REIPUBLICAE AT SITS FINIS LITIUM 

C.) BOTH A AND B 

D.) EITHER A OR B 

51.) Principle of res-judicata applies between 

A.) Between co-defendents 

B.) between co- plaintiffs 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) Niether a nor b 

52.) the validity of a foregin judgement under Section 13 of the CPC can be questioned in 

A.) in a civil court only 

B.) in a criminal court only 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) Niether a nor b 

53.) Under Section 15 of CPC every suit shall be instituted in 

A.) in a civil court only 

B.) the court of lower grade 

C.) the court of higher grade 

D.) All the above 

54.) X residing in Delhi published defamatory statements against Y in Calcutta, Y can file a suit against x at 

A.) Delhi 

B.) Calcutta 

C.) Anywhere in India 

D.) Either A or B 

55.) A suit for breach of contract can be filed at a place 

A.) where the contract was made 

B.) Where the breach of contract was done 

C.) Anywhere in India 

D.) Both A and b 

56.) In every complaint under Section 26 of the CPC, facts should be proved by 

A.) oral evidence 

B.) Affidavit 

C.) document 

D.) oral evidence as well as document 

57.) The existence of statutes of limitation are due to 

A.) Long dormant claims have more of cruelty then justice in them 

B.) The defendant may have lost evidence to dispute state claim 

C.) Persons with good cause should pursue them with reasonable diligence 

D.) All the above 

58.) Limitation Act is applicable to 

A.) Civil Suits 

B.) Criminal Suits 

C.) Both are correct 

D.) Civil, all the above 

59.) a company fails to hold a statutory meeting,the penalty for the same would be 

A.) Rs 500 per day default 

B.) Wound up 

C.) Rs 1000 per day default,

D.) None of these 

60.) Free transferability is mandatory in, 

A.) Listed Company 

B.) Company ltd by shares 

C.) Public company 

D.) Private company 

61.) the MOA of the company shall be as per which table 

A.) Table A 

B.) Table B 

C.) Table C 

D.) Table D 

62.) Which of the following clauses cannot be amended from MOA 

A.) Objects Clause 

B.) Liability Clause 

C.) Association clause 

D.) registered office clause 

63.) Under IPC, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 

A.) Eight years 

B.) Ten years 

C.) Seven years 

D.) Twelve years 

64.) Right to private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing deaths,if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right 

A.) reasonably causes an apprehension death will be caused 

B.) Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury would be caused 

C.) is of escaping the stolen property immediately after the theft 

D.) Is arresting a person,running away after voluntarily causing hurt 

65.) Under Section 498 A cruelty means and includes 

A.) Only demand of dowry 

B.) Only physical touyrture 

C.) Both mental and physical torture 

D.) None of the above 

66.) What is an offence where preparation itself of an offence is punishable 

A.) Theft 

B.) Dacoity 

C.) Murder 

D.) Rape 

67.) In Rex vs. Govinda,distinction between two points were explained 

A.) Section 34 and 149 

B.) Section 202 and 304 

C.) section 299 and 300 

D.) Section 403 and 405 

68.) Sexual intercourse by a man with his wife aged about 14 years is 

A.) No offence 

B.) Offence of rape 

C.) intercourse with own wife is not rape 

D.) As there was consent, hence A cannot be held guilty of rape 

69.) who categorised the subject of jurisprudence as expositorial and censorial jurisprudence 

A.) Holland 

B.) Bentham 

C.) Kelson 

D.) Paton 

70.) Who described jurisprudence as lawyers extra version 

A.) Savigny 

B.) Salmond 

C.) Julius Stone 

D.) Buckland 

71.) Fiction theory is related to which of the following concepts 

A.) ownership 

B.) liability 

C.) justice 

D.) Legal personality 

72.) Can a Muslim man marry a Kitabiya Girl 

A.) Valid 

B.) Void 

C.) Irreguler 

D.) None of these 

73.) The dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act is bassed on which school 

A.) Hanafi School 

B.) Shafi School 

C.) Maliki School 

D.) Zaidi School 

74.) Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956, a female Hindu cannot adopt if 

A.) She is married 

B.) She is not married 

C.) She is a widow and has no son or daughter 

D.) She cannot adopt at all 

75.) A child born of void and voidable marriage, under Hindu Law is 

A.) Legitimate 

B.) Illegitimate 

C.) Illegal 

D.) None of these 

76.) The Term Lock Out under Industrial Dispute Act has been defined in 

A.) Sec2(1) 

B.) Sec2(0) 

C.) Sec3(1) 

D.) Sec2(M) 

77.) The term Lay off under the Industrial Dispute Act has been defined under 

A.) Sec2(kkk) 

B.) Sec2(0) 

C.) Sec2(1) 

D.) Sec3(1) 

78.) The trade Union Act was enacted 

A.) 1926 

B.) 1946 

C.) 1947 

D.) 1988 

79.) The Minimum Wages Act has been described in 

A.) The Trade Union Act 

B.) Industrial dispute Act 

C.) Minimum Wages Act 

D.) None of the above 

80.) The minimum wages Act was enacted in 

A.) 1921 

B.) 1923 

C.) 1947 

D.) 2007 

81.) The trade Union Act provide for 

A.) Registration of trade Union 

B.) Registration of trade unions for worker 

C.) Recognition of registration of trade union as juristic person 

D.) All the above 

82.) Supremacy of law, Equality before the law and predominance of legal spirit are the basic principle of the doctrine of 

A.) Colorable legislation 

B.) separation of powers 

C.) Rule of law 

D.) excessive delegation 

83.) Rule of law is an antithesis of arbitrariness in all civilised society 

1. A) Justice H.R Khanna 

B.) Chief Justice Ray 

C.) Justice Chandrachud 

D.) Justice Bhagwati 

84.) Maxim delegatus non potest del means 

A.) Delegate can further delegate 

B.) delegate cannot further delegate 

C.) Delegate must protest delegation objectively 

D.) None of the above 

85.) Consumer Protection Act is predominantly based on the UN General Assembly resolution with due negotiation in the 

A.) UNCITRAL 

B.) UNCTAD 

C.) UN ECOSOC 

D.) None of the above 

86.) The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in 

A.) 1985 

B.) 1986 

C.) 2006 

D.) 2008 

87.) Appeal against claims tribunal under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 can be made under 

A.) Section 171 

B.) Section 172 

C.) Section 173 

D.) Section 174 

88.) An amendment in case of Motor Vehicles Act 1994, compensation in case of death of the person is 

A.) Rs25000 

B.) Rs 50000 

C.) Rs 70000 

D.) Rs 90000 

89.) Under the vicarious liability, the liability is 

A.) Joint 

B.) Several 

C.) both A and B 

D.) Either of them, depending upon the facts of the cases 

90.) In torts, in case of defamation 

1. A) Intention to defame is not necessary 

B.) Intention to defame is necessary 

C.) both A and B 

D.) either 1 or 2 

91.) The father of which leader has been the Deputy Prime Minister of India 

A.) Kumari Mayawati 

B.) Mrs Mira Kumar 

C.) Mrs Pratibha Devi Singh Patil 

D.) Mrs Vasundhara Raje 

92.) Who was the constitutional advisor of the Constituent Assembly of India 

A.) Dr.Rajendra Prasad 

B.) Dr.B.R Ambedkar 

C.) B.N Rao 

D.) Jawaharlal Nehru 

93.) The concept of Judicial Review is based on 

A.) Procedure established by the law 

B.) Due process of law 

C.) Rule of law 

D.) International treaties and conventions 

94.) Protection of Environment is a 

A.) Constitutional duty 

B.) Directive principle 

C.) Fundamental Duty 

D.) Both B and C 

95.) The item education belongs to 

A.) Union list 

B.) State List 

C.) Concurrent list 

D.) Residuary power 

96.) While interpreting the term Equality before the Law, the SC constantly maintained that equality means 

A.) Absolute equality among human beings 

B.) Equal treatment to all persons 

C.) Among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administratrator 

D.) Both B and C 

97.) The number of fundamental rights available in the constitution are 

A.) Six 

B.) Seven 

C.) Eight 

D.) Ten 

98.) Which of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr BR Ambedkar as the Heart and Soul of the constitution 

1. A) Right to Equality 

B.) Right to freedom of religion 

C.) Right to Constitutional Remedies 

D.) All the above 

99.) What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India 

A.) 6 years 

B.) Upto 65 years of age 

C.) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier 

D.) Upto 62 years of age 

100.) Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom 

A.) QuoWarranto 

B.) Mandamus 

C.) Heabeus corpus 

D.) Ceretori 

Answers 

1.) D 2.) B 3.) D 4.) D 5.) C 6.) B 7.) D 8.) B 9.) C 10.) B 11.) B 12.) D 13.) A 14.) A 15.) D 16.) C 17.) B 18.) C 19.) A 20.) A 21.) A 22.) C 23.) B 24.) D 25.) A 26.) B 27.) C 28.) B 29.) D 30.) D 31.) C 32.) A 33.) B 34.) C 35.) D 36.) D 37.) C 38.) A 39.) C 40.) C 41.) D 42.) A 43.) C 44.) A 45.) D 46.) B 47.) A 48.) C 49.) A 50.) C 51.) C 52.) B 53.) B 54.) D 55.) D 56.) B 57.) D 58.) C 59.) B 60.) C 61.) A 62.) A 63.) D 64.) A 65.) C 66.) B 67.) C 68.) B 69.) B 70.) C 71.) D 72.) A 73.) A 74.) A 75.) B 76.) A 77.) A 78.) A 79.) C 80.) C 81.) D 82.) C 83.) A 84.) B 85.) B 86.) B 87.) C 88.) B 89.) C 90.) B 91.) B 92.) C 93.) C 94.) D 95.) C 96.) D 97.) B 98.) C 99.) C 100.) C 

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