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The Clinical Establishments (Registration And Regulation) Act, 2010

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This article is written by Shriya Singh. The article seeks to discuss in depth pertaining to the provisions of the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010. It provides provision-wise detail regarding all the seven chapters of the Act. It covers the establishment of the National Council as well as the State or Union Territory Council of clinical establishments and the registration process for them. It further provides for the provisions regarding the functioning of such clinical establishments and penalties in the course of any contravention.

Table of Contents

Introduction 

The Clinical Establishment Act, 2010 (from now on to be referred to as Act, 2010) addresses issues related to or incidental to the registration and regulation of clinical institutions throughout the nation. 

In order to fulfil the mandate of Article 47 of the Constitution of India to improve public health, it is deemed necessary to provide for the registration and regulation of clinical establishments to establish minimum standards of facilities and services that they may offer. 

Furthermore, in accordance with Article 252(1) of the Constitution of India, resolutions have been passed by the legislatures, stating that parliament should regulate the matters related in such States by law, of all the four states, namely – 

  1. Arunachal Pradesh,
  2. Himachal Pradesh,
  3. Mizoram, and
  4. Sikkim. 

Parliament has no authority to make laws for the states regarding any of the matters stated above except for the matters that are provided in Article 249 and Article 250 of the Constitution of India.

The Act, 2010 comprises 7 chapters and 56 sections in toto.

Let us discuss the Act, 2010 in detail.

Chapter I- Preliminary

Chapter I of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the applicability of the Act. It further provides for definitions of various terms that would be important in the better understanding of the Act in toto.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Application

Section 1(2) provides that the Act, 2010 first and foremost applies to the entire States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Sikkim as well as the Union Territories.

The provision further states that the Act shall be applicable to any other state that adopts it by resolution enacted in that regard under Article 252(1) of the Constitution of India.

Important Definitions

Section 2 of the Act, 2010 provides for various definitions from Section 2(a) to Section 2(o) to facilitate a better understanding of the provisions of the entire Act. 

Let us discuss some important definitions of the Act.

Clinical establishment

According to Section 2 (c) of the Act, 2010, “clinical establishment” is defined as: 

  • A hospital, maternity home, nursing home, dispensary, clinic, sanitorium or any other type of institution that provides services and facilities necessary for the diagnosis, treatment or care of illness, injury, deformity, abnormality or pregnancy in any recognised system of medicine established and administered or maintained by any individual or body of individuals, whether incorporated or not.
  • An establishment that is either standalone or a component of the previously mentioned establishment and is used for the diagnosis or treatment of diseases where pathological, bacteriological, genetic, radiological, chemical biological or other diagnostic or investigator services are performed with the use of laboratory or other medical equipment. The services can be established, administered or maintained by any individual or group of individuals, whether they are incorporated or not. These include a clinical Establishment that is controlled or managed by: 
  • The government or department of the government,
  • A trust, either private or public,
  • A company including a society that is registered under a Central, Provincial or State Act, regardless of whether the government own it or not,
  • A local government, and 
  • A single physician or doctor but excludes any clinical Establishment that is owned, operated or managed and controlled by the Armed Forces.

The explanation to this section provides that  Armed Forces means the forces constituted under the:

Emergency medical condition

Section 2(d) defines the term “emergency medical condition”. It states that it refers to any medical illness exhibiting acute symptoms severe enough, including extreme pain, that one may reasonably expect, in the event that prompt medical assistance is not received, to result in:

  • Putting in grave danger the health of the person or in the case of a pregnant woman the health of the mother or her unborn child, 
  • Severe impairment of physiological processes,
  • Severe malfunction of any physical component or organ of a body.

Recognised system of medicine

Section 2(h) of the Act, 2010 states that a “recognised system of medicine” refers to any medical system that the central government may recognise. It may include- 

  • Allopathy, 
  • Yoga, 
  • Naturopathy, 
  • Ayurveda, 
  • Homoeopathy, 
  • Siddha, and 
  • Unani.

To stabilise

Section 2(o) of the Act, 2010 defines the term “to stabilise”. It states that concerning an emergency medical condition, the term “to stabilise” with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions, means to provide such medical treatment as may be necessary to ensure that no material deterioration of the condition is likely to result from or occur during the transfer of an individual from a clinical establishment, within a reasonable medical probability.

Chapter II- The National Council for Clinicial Establishment

Chapter II of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the establishment of the National Council of Clinical Establishment, and disqualifications regarding the appointment of members in such council. It further entails provisions regarding the functions of the National Council and empowers it to seek assistance.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Establishment of the National Council

According to Section 3(1), a council to be known as the National Council for Clinical Establishments must be created for the purpose of this Act. This National Council would be effective from such date that the central government may by notification appoint in this regard.

Section 3(2) of the Act, 2010 provides for the composition of the National Council of Clinical Establishment. The provision states that the National Council consist of the following members- 

  • An ex officio, the director general of the Health Service from the  Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. He shall be the chairperson of the council. 
  • There would be four representatives each of whom would be elected by the:

Section 3(3) provides that the National Council members who are nominated will serve 3 years term of office. Also, those members will be entitled to re-nomination for a maximum of three years term. 

According to Section 3(4), the elected members of the National Council will serve a term of 3 years but they will be eligible for re-election. However, the nominee or elected official will remain in office until they are appointed to the position for which they are nominated or elected, whichever that may be.

Section 3(5) states that the members of the National Council are eligible to receive any allowance that the central government specify and deems fit.

Section 3(6) envisages that the National Council may establish bylaws defining a quorum for it. Also, regarding the regulation of its own procedure and conduct of all the business that would be transacted by it. However, such bye-laws are to be established with prior approval of the central government.

Section 3(7) states that the National Council must convene a meeting at least once in every 3 months.

According to Section 3(8), the National Council has the authority to form sub-committees and designate individuals who are not National Council members to serve on such sub-committees for a maximum period of 2 years in order to address certain issues. 

Section 3(8) states that the National Council may continue to perform its duty irrespective of the vacancy. 

Section 3(9) provides that the secretary of the National Council will be appointed by the central government. The central government is also empowered to appoint such other secretaries and other staff in the National Council as it may deem necessary, as per Section 3(10).

Disqualifications for appointment as a member

Section 4 of the Act, 2010 provides that an individual will not be eligible to be chosen as a member of the National Council if-

  • He has been found guilty of an offence and has been given an imprisonment term because the central government is of the opinion that the offence entails moral turpitude,
  • He is an undischarged insolvent,
  • He has a competent court pronounced him to be mentally incompetent or of unsound mind,
  • He has been removed or dismissed from the service of the government or a corporation that is owned or controlled by the government, or
  • He has financial or other interests in the council that might adversely impact his ability to perform his duties as a member of the National Council and Central Government is of such opinion.

Functions of the National Council

Section 5 of the Act, 2010 states that the following are the functions that will be carried out by the National Council- 

  • The National Council has to gather and publish a national registry of clinical institutions within 2 years of the enactment of this Act, 
  • The council has to divide clinical facilities into several groups or different categories,
  • It has to create minimal requirements pertaining to standards and schedule regular reviews for them,
  • The council would develop the first set of guidelines for clinical establishments to follow in order to guarantee appropriate health care within 2 years of its founding, 
  • It is required to compile data pertaining to the healthcare facilities or clinical establishments, and 
  • It is required to carry out such additional duties as periodically decided by the central government.

Power to seek advice or assistance

Section 6 states that the National Council may affiliate or associate with any individual or entity whose assistance or support it finds necessary in executing the provisions of this Act. 

National Council to follow a consultative process

According to Section 7, the National Council will classify clinical establishments in compliance with any procedure that may be specified by using a consultation method to determine criteria or standards, as may be prescribed.

Chapter III- Registration and Standards for Clinical Establishments

Chapter III of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the establishment of the State Council of Clinical Establishment. It also gives the provisions for the provision of information to the National Council. Also covers the provisions for authority for registration and conditions for such registration as well as classification of the clinical establishments.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

State Council of Clinical Establishments

Section 8 of the Act, 2010 provides for the State Council of clinical establishments. 

Section 8(1) states that a state council of clinical establishments or a union territory council for clinical establishments must be established by notification from each state government, as appropriate. 

Section 8(2) provides a list of individuals that would constitute these state councils or union territory councils, as the case may be. Such individuals are- 

  • An ex-officio secretary of health who will serve as chairman,
  • Member secretary ex-officio would be the director of health services,
  • Ex officio members who serve as directors of several Indian systems of medicine in different streams,
  • There would be one representative who is required to be fixed from the committee of- 
  1. The State Medical Council of India, 
  2. The State Dental Council of India, 
  3. The State Nursing Council of India, and 
  4. The State Pharmacy Council of India. 
  • They would be three representatives from the Ayurveda Siddha and Unani medical systems who are required to be chosen by the executive of the state council or the union territory council, depending on the situation,
  • One representative to be elected by the state council of the Indian Medical Association,
  • One delegate to be chosen from the line of the paramedical systems,
  • Two representatives from the consumer associations at the state level or reputable non-governmental organisations involved in the health sector,

Section 8(3) of the Act, 2010 provides that the designated or nominated members of the state council or the union territory council, as suitable, will serve a time period of 3 years in office and would be eligible for renomination for a maximum of one more term of period of 3 years.

Section 8(4) states that the elected members of the union territory council or the state council, as applicable, would be eligible for re-election for the further term of 3 years in office with one restriction. It states that the nominee or elected individual will remain and office for the duration of their appointment to the state council or union territory council, as applicable, in accordance with their nomination or election. In simple words, it means that such members who are nominated would serve the state council or the union territory council, as the case may be, until the time his appointment holds in the office, by virtue of which he was nominated or elected. 

Section 8(5) envisages the functions of the State Council of Clinical Establishment or the Union Territory Council for Clinical Establishment. They are given as follows – 

  • They are required to assemble and maintain the register for the clinical Establishment,
  • They have to submit monthly reports to keep the national register up to date,
  • They pose as representatives of state or union territory in the National Council,
  • They are empowered to consider and here appeal against the order of the authority, and
  • They are required to publish an annual report on the status of standard implementation in their respective States or Union Territories as the case may be.

Providing information to the National Council

Section 9 of the Act, 2010 talks about providing information to the National Council. The provision states that the state council for clinical establishments will be in charge of gathering and maintaining the state register of clinical establishments in the particular state. 

Furthermore, it states that it would also send monthly returns to update the national register, in the digital format.

Authority for registration

Section 10 provides provisions regarding authority for registration. 

Section 10(1) states that the state government may establish a district registering authority for the purpose of registering clinical establishments in each district, by notification. The provision further states that the authority shall consist of the following members- 

  • The District Collector would act as the Chairman of such authority,
  • The Convener of the authority would be the District Health Officer, and 
  • There would be three members who would meet the requirements and agree to the terms and circumstances that the central government may specify.

Section 10(2) further states that the district health officer or the chief medical officer, by whatever title they may go by, shall exercise the authority in accordance with the procedure that may be prescribed for the purpose of registering the clinical establishments under Section 14.

Registration for clinical establishments

Section 11 of the Act, 2010 provides that no person is allowed to run a clinical establishment in the state or union territory until and unless it has been duly registered in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Conditions for registration

Section 12 provides conditions for registration of the clinical establishments.

Section 12(1) provides that to be registered and remain an operation each clinical Establishment must meet to requirements that are listed below-

  • The minimum standard or requirement of facilities and services that might be prescribed, 
  • The bare minimum requirement of personnel that may be necessary,
  • Any requirement that may be specified regarding maintenance of reporting and record-keeping, and 
  • Such other conditions that may be prescribed on this behalf.

Section 12(2) entails that any person who visits or is taken to the clinical establishment will be given the necessary medical evaluation and treatment within the limits of staff and facilities available to stabilize their emergency medical condition.

Classification of clinical establishments

Section 13 provides for the classification of clinical establishments. 

Section 13(1) entails that the categorization of clinical establishments across various systems will follow any guidelines that the central government may prescribe from time to time.

Section 13(2) provides that various standards or criteria may be stipulated for the categorization of distinct categories with the understanding that the central government would take local conditions into consideration while establishing requirements for the clinical establishments of states or union territories, as the case may be.

Chapter IV- Procedure for Registration

Chapter IV of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the application for registration of clinical establishment, provisional certificate, display of the certificate, validity of provisional registration, cancellation, inspection, appeal, etc.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Application for provisional certificate of registration

Section 14 of the Act,2010 provides for provisions regarding the application for provisional certificate of registration.

Section 14(1) states that the authority must receive an application in the appropriate performa and along with the necessary fee in order to register the clinical establishment under Section 10.

Section 14(2) further states that the application must be submitted by post or online via mail.

Section 14(3) provides that the application must be submitted in the format and with the supporting documentation that may be required by this Act or any regulations enacted under it.

Section 14(4) further states that a clinical establishment that is ready in operation at the time this Act is enacted must apply for registration within a year from the commencement of the Act. Also, a clinical establishment that is established after the commencement of the Act, must apply for permanent registration within 6 months of the commencement date of the Act.

Section 14(5) states that a Clinical Establishment must apply for registration in accordance with Section 4(1) even if it is already registered under an existing legislation requiring such registration.

Provisional certificate

Section 15 of the Act, 2010 provides for provision regarding the provisional certificate.

It states that within 10 days of receiving the application, the authority must provide the applicant with a certificate of provisional registration in the format and with the details and information that may be required.

No inquiry before provisional registration

Section 16 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding no inquiry prior to provisional registration. 

Section 16(1) states that before planting a provisional registration, the authority is not permitted to carry out any investigation.

Section 16(2) further provides that in spite of the provisional certificate of registration being granted, the authority must publish all relevant information about the clinical establishment that was provisionally registered in a prescribed manner within 45 days of the provisional registration being granted.

Validity of provisional registration

Section 17 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the validity of provisional registration. 

It states that all provisional registrations are renewable and valid until the final day of the twelfth month from the day a certificate of registration was issued subject to the conditions of Section 23.

Display of certificate of registration

Section 18 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the display of certificate of registration. It states that it is required that the certificate be prominently displayed at the clinical establishment so that everyone who visits may visibly see it.

Duplicate certificate

Section 19 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the duplicate certificate.

It states that in the event that the certificate is misplaced, destroyed, altered or damaged, the authority will upon request from the clinical establishment and upon payment of any applicable fee, issue a duplicate certificate.

Certificate to be non-transferable

Section 20 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the non-transferability of certificates.

Section 20(1) explicitly states that the registration certificate is not transferable.

Section 20(2) provides that the clinical establishment shall notify the authority of any change in ownership or management in the manner as may be prescribed.

Section 20(3) further provides that is certificate of registration for a clinical establishment must be resorted to the appropriate authority in the event that the establishment changes categories, relocates or stops operating as a clinical establishment. The clinical establishment must then re-apply to be granted a certificate of registration afresh.

Publication of expiry of registration

Section 21 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the publication of the expiry of registration.

It states that the names of clinical establishments whose registrations have expired must be disclosed by the authority in the manner and within the time frame that may be specified.

Renewal of registration

Section 22 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the renewal of registration.

The provision states that the request to renew registration must be submitted 30 days prior to the expiry of the certificate of provisional registration. If the request is submitted after the provisional registration has expired, the authority will permit the renewal of registration in exchange for the additional fee that may be prescribed. 

Time limit for provisional registration

Section 23 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the timeline for provisional registration.

It states that in cases where the Central Government has issued requirements for clinical establishments, interim registration cannot be granted or renewed beyond the following- 

  • For clinical establishments that were founded prior to the effective date of this Act, the two years after the date of notice of the standards,
  • For clinical establishments that are established after the incorporation of this Act but before the standards are notified, the two-year period from the date of notice of the standards, and 
  • 6 months from the date of standard notice for clinical establishments that are established subsequent to the announcement of standards.

Application for permanent registration

Section 24 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the application for permanent registration.

It states that a clinical establishment must submit an application for permanent registration to the authorities using the form and any applicable fees that may be specified.

Verification of application

Section 25 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the verification of application.

It provides that the clinical Establishment must provide evidence in the way that may be prescribed that it has completed with the minimum standards.

Display of information for filing objections

Section 26 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the display of information for filing objections.

It states that the authority must arrange for all pieces of evidence submitted by the clinical Establishment to have complied with the prescribed minimum standards to be displayed for public viewing an object filing, if any. Such objection must be sent in the prescribed manner. Such display must be made as soon as the clinical establishment summits the necessary proof of having done so. This display must last for 30 days before the application for permanent registration is processed.

Communication of objections

Section 27 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the communication of objections.

It states that if objections are received in the time frame mentioned, they must be reported to the clinical establishment and answered within 45 days.

Standards for permanent registration

Section 28 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the standards for permanent registration.

It states that only once a clinical establishment satisfies the requirements set out by the central government for registration can it be given permanent registration.

Allowing or disallowing registration

Section 29 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding allowing or disallowing of registration.

It states that after the allotted time has passed, the authority must issue an order either immediately or within the following 30 days, either- 

  • Approving the permanent registration application, or
  • Rejecting the application. 

However, in the event that an application is rejected, the authority will document its reasoning for permanent registration.

Certificate of permanent registration

Section 30 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the certificate of permanent registration.

Section 30(1) states that the authority will issue a certificate of permanent registration in the format and with the information that may be prescribed if it approves the application of clinical establishment for the same.

Section 30(2) states that after the date of issuance, the certificate will be valid for a period of 5 years

Section 30(3) states that the provisions of Sections 18,19,20 and 21 shall also be applicable for the purpose of Section 30(1)

Section 30(4) provides that applications for permanent registration renewal must be submitted not later than 6 months prior to the expiry of the certificate of permanent registration. If the application is not submitted within the allotted time period, the authority may permit registration renewal on the payment of an additional fee and penalty that may be prescribed in that regard. 

Fresh application for permanent registration

Section 31 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the fresh application of permanent registration.

It states that the disallowing of a permanent registration application does not preclude a clinical establishment from submitting a new application under Section 24 after supplying any necessary evidence that the deficiency that led to the denial of the previous application has been addressed. 

Cancellation of registration

Section 32 of the Act, 2010 provides provisions regarding the cancellation of registration. 

Section 32(1) states that after a clinical institution or establishment has been registered, the authority may send a notice to the clinical establishment to show cause within 3 months as to why its registration under this action not be cancelled for the reason specified in the notice, if at any point it is convinced that-

  • The conditions of registrations are not being followed, or 
  • The person in charge of the management of the clinical establishment has been found guilty of an offence punishable under this Act. 

Section 32(2) provides that the authority mechanical the registration of a clinical establishment by order, without affecting any other actions it may take against it if it is satisfied that any of the provisions of this act or the rules made there under it have been violated after providing a reasonable opportunity to the clinical establishment of being heard in light of natural justice.

Section 32(3) provides that every order taken will be effective-

As soon as the allotted time period for an appeal against the order expires, if no appeal has been filed, or 

As soon as the appeal has been filed and dismissed, starting from the date of the order of dismissal. 

Provided that as long as there is no urgent threat to the health or safety of the patient, the authority may immediately suspend the operations of the clinical establishment following the revocation of registration for reasons that must be documented in writing.

Inspection of registered clinical establishments

Section 33 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the inspection of registered clinical establishments.

Section 33(1) states that the authority or an officer designated by it shall have the authority to cause an inspection of or inquiry into any registered clinical establishment including its structure laboratories and equipment as well as the work the clinical establishment conducts or completes. The inspection may be conducted by a multi-member inspection team and the clinical establishment shall be entitled to be represented at the inquiry.

Section 33(2) further states that the authority will inform the clinical establishment of its opinions and about the findings of the inspection or inquiry. Once the clinical establishment has been consulted, the authority may advise the establishment on the appropriate course of action.

Section 33(3) provides that following an inspection or inquiry, the clinical establishment is required to report to the authority any action that has been taken or is intended to be taken. This report must be provided within a time frame that the authorities specify in this regard.

Section 33(4) purports that if, within a reasonable time frame, the clinical establishment fails to satisfy the authority, the authority mein after taking into account any justification offered or representations made by the clinical establishment, issues such directions within the time frame specified in the direction as the authority may deem appropriate. The clinical establishment shall abide by such directions dutifully.

Power to enter

Section 34 of the Act, 2010 provides provisions regarding the power to enter. 

It provides that the clinical establishment shall provide reasonable facilities for inspection or inquiry and be entitled to be represented there. However, no such person shall enter the establishment without giving notice of his intention to do so. The authority or an officer authorised by it may enter and search in the manner prescribed at any reasonable time if there is any reason to suspect that anyone is carrying on a clinical establishment without registration.

Levy of fee by State Government Appeal

Section 35 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the levy of fees by the State Government.

It purports that the state government may impose fees on different categories of clinical establishments as may be prescribed.

Appeal

Section 36 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding appeal.

Section 36(1) states that anybody who feels aggrieved by an order made by the registry authority that denies them a certificate of registration renews their registration certificate or revokes their certificate of registration may file an appeal with these State Councils in a way and within the time frame that is specified by the State Council. However, the state Council may consider an appeal filed after the expiry of such prescribed period if it determines that the apparent was prevented from filing the appeal in a timely manner for a reason valid enough to explain the delay.

Section 36(2) further states that the appeal must be submitted in the format specified and it shall be accompanied with any fees that are prescribed in this regard.

Chapter V- Register of Clinical Establishments

Chapter V of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the register of clinical establishment. Also, the provision entails the maintenance of state as well as national registers.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Register of clinical establishments

Section 37 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the register of clinical establishments. 

Section 37(1) purports that the authority must gather, publish and maintain a register of clinical establishments that it has registered within 2 years of its incorporation, in the digital format. It must also enter the details of the certificate it has issued in a register that will be kept in the format and style that the respective state government may specify.

Section 37(2) entails that to guarantee that the state register is always up to date with the registers maintained by the registering authority in a state, each authority shall provide a copy of every entry made in the register of clinical Establishment in digital format to the state council of clinical establishments in the manner that may be prescribed. It shall be further noted that such above-mentioned authority includes any other authority that has been set up for the registration of clinical establishments under any law currently in effect, for the specific purpose of this provision.

Maintenance of State Register of clinical establishments

Section 38 entails provisions regarding the maintenance of the state register of clinical establishments. 

Section 38(1) provides that for the benefit of a particular clinical establishment, the respective state government is required to keep a record known as the state record of clinical Establishment which must be maintained in digital format and with such information that the central government may specify on this behalf.

Section 38(2) further provides that each state government shall provide a copy of the state register of clinical establishments to the central government in digital format. Furthermore, the state government shall notify the central government by the 15th day of the subsequent month of any additions or modifications that are made to the state register of clinical establishments for that particular month.

Maintenance of the National Register of Clinical Establishments

Section 39 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the maintenance of a national register for clinical establishments.

The provision states that these state registers of the State Government for clinical establishments will be combined into one register which would contain the particulars regarding all over India clinical establishments. Such all India register would be known as a national register for clinical establishments. Further, the central government will maintain this register in digital format and will arrange for it to be published in such format as well.

Chapter VI- Penalties

Chapter VI of the Act, 2010 provides for penalties regarding non-registration and minor deficiencies. It also covers the provisions regarding the contravention by companies and government departments. Also, provides for the recovery of fines.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Penalty

Section 40 of the Act, 2010 talks about penalties. It states that if no punishment or penalty is specified anywhere else, then, anyone found in violation of any of the provisions of this Act would be subjected to penal consequences. The punishment would be in the manner stated below-

  • A fine up to the amount of ten thousand rupees for the first offence, 
  • Fifty thousand rupees for the second offence, and 
  • Five lakh rupees for subsequent offences.

Monetary penalty for non-registration

M&A

Section 41 of the Act, 2010 entails provisions regarding the monetary penalty for non-registration situations.

Section 41(1) states that anybody operating a Clinical Establishment without registration faces financial penalties in such manner- 

  • penalty up to the amount of fifty thousand rupees for the first offence, fine up to the amount of two lakh rupees for the second offence, and 
  • fine up to the amount of five lakh rupees for any subsequent offences.

Section 41(2) states that anybody who intentionally works in a clinical establishment that is not properly licensed under this Act would face a penalty of fine that may extend up to the amount of twenty-five thousand rupees. 

According to Section 41(3), in order to make a decision and impose any financial penalty upon any clinical establishment or anyone related to it, the authority must convene and enquiry in the way specified after providing a fair chance of representation to the alleged, in the light of principles of natural justice.

Section 41(4) envisages that if after conducting an enquiry it is determined that the subject has not complied with the specified provisions, the authority may impose the monetary penalty by order regarding them. Such penalty has to be deposited within 30 days of the order in the account that the state government may specify as per Section 42. Furthermore, the authority shall have the power to summon and enforce the attendance of any person who is well acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case in order to give testimony or to produce any document which may be useful or relevant to the subject matter of the inquiry in the opinion of the authority.

As per Section 41(5), two factors should be taken into consideration by the authority when establishing the amount of financial penalties. They are as follows –

  • the category, size and type of the clinical establishment, and 
  • the local characteristics of the region in which the establishment is situated.

Section 41(6) states that within 3 months of the date of the decision, anybody who feels aggrieved by the judgement of the authority may file an appeal with the State Council.

Section 41(7) further provides that the appeal must be filed in accordance with the provision that may be prescribed.

Disobedience of direction, obstruction and refusal of information

Section 42 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the disobedience of direction, obstruction and refusal of information.

Section 42(1) purports that a monetary penalty of up to the amount of five lakh rupees shall be imposed upon anyone who willfully disobeys a lawful direction given by any person or authority authorised under this Act to give such a direction. The fine also extends to anyone who obstructs any person or authority in the performance of a function that such person or authority is required or empowered under this Act to perform.

Section 42(2) states that anybody who knowingly withholds information that they are required by this Act to provide or provides information that they know is incorrect or that they do not believe to be accurate will be subjected to a fine that might extend up to the amount of five lakh rupees. 

According to Section 42(3), after providing any affected party with a reasonable chance to be heard, the authority shall convene an inquiry in a manner that is provided for adjudication and impose any monetary penalty. 

Section 42(4) provides that if after conducting an enquiry it is determined that the subject has not complied with the specified provisions, the authority may order the imposition of the monetary penalty which is specified under the offences. The amount of fine is required to be deposited in the account that is specified by the state government, within 30 days from such order. The authority may also summon and in force the attendance of any person who is well acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case to give testimony or to produce any document that may be, in the opinion of the authority, useful or relevant to the subject matter of the inquiry. 

According to Section 42(5), there should be two factors taken into account by the authority when establishing the amount of monetary penalty, they are as follows – 

  • The category, size and type of the clinical establishment, and
  • The local characteristics of the region in which the establishment is located. 

Section 42(6) states that anybody who feels aggrieved by the judgement of the authority may file an appeal with the State Council within 3 months of the date of the decision.

Section 42(7) provides that the appeal must be filed in accordance with the procedure that is prescribed. 

As per Section 42(8), the monetary penalty that is assessed under Sections 41 and 42 will be credited to the account that the state government may designate in this regard, by order.

Penalty for minor deficiencies

Section 43 of the Act, 2010 provides for the provisions regarding the penalty of minor deficiencies.

It states that a punishment of up to the amount of ten thousand rupees may be imposed on anybody who violates the provisions of this Act or any regulation issued there under. Such a violation must result in inadequacy that does not immediately endanger the health and safety of any patient and which may be resolved within a reasonable amount of time.

Contravention by companies

Section 44 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the contraventions done by the companies. 

Section 44(1) provides that if any company contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or any rules made there under it, everyone who was in charge of and accountable to the company for the business conduct of the company at that time when such violation was made would be considered guilty of the same and will be subjected to a monetary penalty. 

However, such a fine would not apply if the person can demonstrate that the violation was committed without their knowledge or that they took all reasonable precautions and due diligence to stop it from happening.

Section 44(2) further provides that if a company violets any of the provisions of this Act or of any rules made thereunder and it is established that any director, manager, secretary or other officers of the company participated in that violation or that the violation was the result of their negligence, then, such director, manager, secretary or other officers of the company will also be considered guilty of the violation and would be subjected to a monetary penalty.

The explanation attached to Section 44 provides

  • The term “company” is defined as a body corporate which might include a form or any other group of persons.
  • The term “director” in relation to the firm means a partner in that firm.

Offences by Government Departments

Section 45 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the offences by government departments. 

Section 45(1) states that if a department of government commits an offence under this Act within 6 months of its enactment, the head of the department will be considered guilty of the offence and will face legal action and punishment. However, nothing in the section will hold the head of the department accountable for any punishment if you can demonstrate that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised his due diligence to prevent it from happening.

Section 45(2) provides that in the event that the department of government commits an offence under this Act and it is established that the offence was carried out with the knowledge or cooperation of any officer other than the head of the department or that the offence was caused by their negligence, such officer will also be considered guilty of the offence and will face the appropriate legal as well as penal consequences.

Recovery of fine

Section 46 of the Act, 2010 entails provisions regarding recovery of fine. 

It states that if a person does not pay the fine that is imposed upon him, the State Council of Clinical Establishment may prepare a certificate outlining the amount owed by that person. Such certificate must be signed by an authorised officer and should be sent to the collector of the district in which the non-paying individual resides owns property or conducts business. The collective will then proceed to collect the amount specified in that certificate from such an individual, just as if it were an arrear of land revenue.

Chapter VII- Miscellaneous

Chapter VII of the Act, 2010 covers all the miscellaneous provisions, such as protection regarding the actions taken in good faith, furnishing of returns, powers to give directions as well as to remove difficulties. Further, it also covers the powers of the state and Central Government to make rules.

Let us discuss the provisions in detail.

Protection of action taken in good faith

Section 47 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the protection of action taken in good faith.

Section 47(1) states that regarding anything done or intended to be done in good faith in accordance with the provisions of this Act or any rule made thereunder, no suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding may be brought against any authority, member of the National Council, State Council or officer authorised in this behalf.

Section 47(2) further provides that if anything is done or intended to be done in good faith in accordance with the provisions of this Act or any regulations established thereunder, no action or other legal proceedings may be brought against a State Government or Central Government for any laws or damage caused or expected to be incurred.

Furnishing of returns, etc

Section 48 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding furnishing of returns.

It states that every clinical establishment is required to provide the authority, the State Council or the National Council with the returns, statistics and other pieces of information in the manner that may be prescribed from time to time by the State Government in this regard. This must be done within the time frame or the extended time frame that may be prescribed. 

Power to give directions

Section 49 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the power to give directions.

It states that the authority shall have the jurisdiction to provide such instructions including providing returns, statistics and other information for the appropriate running of clinical establishments. Such directions shall be binding subject to the provisions of this Act.

Employees of the authority, etc., to be public servants

Section 50 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding employees of the authority to be public servants.

The provision states that Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code,1860 defines public workers to include all employees of the government, the National Council and the State Council who act or pretend to act in accordance with any of the provisions of this Act. 

Power to remove difficulties

Section 51 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the power to remove difficulties.

Section 51(1) states that in the event that the central government encounters difficulties in implementing the provisions of this Act, pick me my order publish in the official gazette make such provisions that are not in conflict with the provisions of the act as missing necessary or expedite to resolve the issue. However, no such order may be made after the Act has been in effect for 2 years.

Section 51(2) provides that any order issued in accordance with the section should be presented to each house of parliament as soon as practical after it is made.

Power of Central Government to make rules

Section 52 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the power of the Central Government to make rules.

Section 52(1) empowers the central government to establish rules, by notification, to implement all or any of the provisions of this Act.

Section 52(2) states that in particular and without limiting the power of the authority mentioned above, such rules must address all or any of the following matters-

  • Allowance under Section 3 (5) for the members of the National Council,
  • The central government appoints such individual to serve as the secretary of the State Council in accordance with Section 3(10), 
  • Establishing criteria and recognising clinical establishments in accordance with Section 7,
  • The requirements and guidelines set 4th in Section 10(1) for the members of the authority,
  • The process by which the Chief Medical Officer or District Health Officer may exercise the power of authority to temporarily register a clinical establishment in accordance with section 10(2),
  • The minimal requirements for amenities and services outlined in Section 12(1),
  • The bare minimum of employees required by Section 12(1),
  • The record-keeping and reporting requirements by the clinical establishment under Section 12(1),
  • The additional requirement for registration and maintenance of clinical establishment provided under Section 12(1),
  • The characterization or classification of the clinical establishment under Section 13(1), 
  • The various criteria of standards used under Section 13(2) two categorize the clinical establishments, 
  • The requirements set out for permanent registration in Section 28, and 
  • The details and formats of the register must be kept in accordance with Section 38.

Laying of rules

Section 53 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the laying of rules made by the Central Government.

It envisages that all rules made by the Central Government under this Act shall be laid before each House of Parliament while it is in session as soon as possible after they are made. This total period must be 30 days and it may be made of one session, or two or more subsequent sessions. If, before the end of the session that follows the session or the sessions above mentioned, both houses agree to make any modification to the rule or agree that the rule should not be made, the rule will thereafter only be in effect in the modified form or have no effect, as the case may be. 

However, whatever is done earlier and in accordance with the regulation will remain lawful, not with standing any such amendment or annulment.

Bihar rules and Lakshwadeep Rules are some examples.

Power of State Government to make rules

Section 54 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the power of state government to make rules.

Section 54(1) states that the state government may establish rules by notification for the purpose of carrying out in relation to subjects that are not covered by Section 52.

Section 54(2) provides that in particular and without limiting the power of the authority mentioned above, such rules may address all or any of the following issues- 

  • The proforma and the registration fee required by Section 14(1), 
  • The format and information required for an application under Section 14(3),
  • The details and particulars included for the certificate of temporary registration under Section 15, 
  • The process by which all information about the clinical establishment that is intended to be registered is published under Section 16, 
  • The fees associated with issuing a duplicate certificate in accordance with Section 19, 
  • The clinical institution or establishment is required to notify the authorities of any change in ownership or management under Section 20(2), 
  • How the authority will list the clinical establishment whose registration has lapsed in accordance with Section 21,
  • The higher renewal fees will be assessed in accordance with Section 22 once the provisional registration expires,
  • The application format and fees that the State Government will impose in accordance with Section 24,
  • How to provide evidence that clinical establishments have adhered to the minimum requirement provided under Section 25, 
  • To know how the information would be displayed by the clinical establishment in relation to their compliance with the minimum requirement for submitting an objection under Section 26, 
  • The conclusion of the time frame indicated in Section 29, 
  • The details and format of the certificate of registration are provided in Section 30, 
  • The time frame for filing an appeal in accordance with Section 32(3),
  • How a clinical establishment is searched and admitted in accordance with Section 34,
  • The fees that the State Government will impose in accordance with Section 35 for various categories of clinical establishments,
  • The process and time frame for submitting an appeal to the State Council in accordance with Section 36(1),
  • The form and fees required for an appeal under Section 36(2),
  • The format and procedure for maintaining the register required under Section 37(1), 
  • How the Enrique created in the clinical establishment registry is provided in digital format to the State Council as per Section 37(2),
  • How the authority will Undertaker and inquiry in accordance with Sections 41 and 42(3),
  • How the appeal should be submitted in accordance with Sections 41 and 42(7),
  • The process and time frame for providing the information required by Section 48 to the relevant authority, State Council or National Council, as may be applicable, and 
  • Any additional matter that is mandated or the state government may prescribe. 

Laying of rules

Section 55 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding the laying of rules made by the State Government.

It states that any regulation or rules adopted by the state government under Section 53 must be presented before each of the two houses of the State Legislature or in the case of one House Legislature before that House, as soon as possible after it is formed.

Savings

Section 56 of the Act, 2010 provides for provisions regarding savings.

Section 56(1) provides that the states where the enactment listed in the Schedule is applicable are exempt from the requirement of this Act. The provision of this act shall take effect in the state in which the enactments are applicable provided that the state adopts this act in accordance with Article 252 of the Constitution of India after it is enacted.

Section 56(2) further provides that the schedule may be amended by the Central Government by notification as and when it is found necessary and appropriate.

Schedule

The Schedule provided under the Act, 2010, in reference to Section 56, provides the list of enactments applicable for exemption under this act, they are- 

1. The Andhra Pradesh Private Medical Care Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2002.

2. The Bombay Nursing Homes Registration Act, 1949.

3. The Delhi Nursing Homes Registration Act, 1953.

4. The Madhya Pradesh Upcharya Griha Tatha Rujopchar Sanbabdu Sthapamaue        (Ragistrikaran Tatha Anugyapan) Adhiniyam, 1973.

5. The Manipur Homes and Clinics Registration Act, 1992.

6. The Nagaland Health Care Establishments Act, 1997.

7. The Orissa Clinical Establishments (Control and Regulation) Act, 1990.

8. The Punjab State Nursing Home Registration Act, 1991.

9. The West Bengal Clinical Establishments Act, 1950

Related case laws

Ranjit Kumar Ghose vs. Secretary, Indian Psycho-Analytical Society and others (1962)

Facts of the case

In this case, a petition was filed by Ranjit Kumar Ghosh under Article 227 of the Constitution of India. It sought the release of Sanat Chandra Bose, who was allegedly being unlawfully and illegally detained at Lumbini Park, a mental hospital and clinic run by the Indian Psycho-Analytical Society. 

Issues raised

The main issue of the petitioner was that Sanat Chandra Bose was not a lunatic and thus should not be detained.

Judgement of the court

The Calcutta High Court issued a writ of Habeas Corpus commanding the respondents to produce Sanath Chandra Bose and their respective warrants of authority to detain him. 

It was found that the lunacy proceedings and adjudication order made by the district judge were void and without jurisdiction. The court held that the Lumbini park had no legal authority to detain Sanath Chandra Bose against his wish.

The court finally held that the detention was illegal and it infringed the fundamental right of personal liberty guaranteed to Sanat Chandra Bose. It found the clinical establishment at fault and quashed the lunacy proceedings. It further ordered the release of Sanat Chandra Bose.

Sameer Kumar vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (2014)

Facts of the case

In this case, the mother of Sameer Kumar was admitted to Ford Hospital of Lucknow where she was treated by Dr. K.P. Chandra. It was a legend that Dr Chandra did not recommend any generic medicine and instead treated the patient with large quantities of the costly antibiotic “Doripenum” without conducting a culture test. It was after the petitioner had insisted, that the culture test was conducted revealing that the infection of the patient was resistant to the antibiotic “Meropenem” but the patient was being administered “Doripenum”, which was similar to “Meropenem”. 

Issues raised

The issue of the case revolved around the supply of medical records to the patient or their authorised attendance during or after treatment.

Judgement of the court

The Calcutta High Court concluded it to be a potential case of medical negligence. It further found that in the state of Uttar Pradesh, government hospitals nursing homes and even medical colleges or hospitals run by the government and private individuals do not provide medical records to patients of their authorised agents. This lack of access to medical records hinders the ability of citizens to file complaints for damages or prosecute those responsible for medical negligence. 

The court also emphasized the importance of the right to life and equality of life as fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Additionally, it highlighted the obligations of the medical profession to provide service with reasonable skill and competence.

Conclusion

The Clinical Establishment (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010 is a vital legislation in India which aims to regulate clinical establishments and ensure quality healthcare services. The Act envisages certain minimum standards and norms that clinical establishments must follow, such as the maintenance of proper records, providing essential facilities and services, etc. 

The Act emphasizes the safety and well-being of patients by mandating the presence of qualified medical staff and ensuring hygiene and safety standards. 

It constitutes the state Council and Central Council to oversee the implementation of the act and advise the government on matters related to the registration and regulation of clinical establishment. By doing so it makes the clinical establishments accountable for the quality of healthcare services that are provided by them. 

Most importantly, the Act, 2010 provides for the regulations of clinical establishments, which help in maintaining uniform standards and preventing malpractices.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) 

Should private hospitals be regulated?

Regulation is required in the private sector if it is utilized by all segments of society, regardless of their financial situation. This is so that the public sector’s function is supplemented by the private sector in this instance. In a scenario like this, the health care system has to have some kind of regulation to guarantee the cost and calibre of services rendered by private physicians. Regulation can take the form of guidelines for the medical community, medical ethics and practice, cost containment, and consumer rights protection.

What does Article 47 of the Constitution of India state?

Article 47 of the Constitution of India states that it is the duty of the State to raise the level of Nutrition as well as the standard of living along with improving public health. It should be considered as any state’s primary duty in such a manner that the state shall bring about the prohibition on the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health otherwise.

What does Article 249 of the Constitution of India state?

Article 249 states that it shall be loafer for parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any matter enumerated in the state list specified in the resolution, provided the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two third of the members present and voting, that is necessary or expedite in the national interest that Parliament may laws with respect to that matter.

The provision further states that an approved resolution will be operative for the duration mentioned in such a solution which cannot exceed 1 year, provided that the resolution will remain in effect for an additional year from the date on which it would have otherwise ceased to be enforced if the resolution authorising its stay is approved in the specified manner. 

Furthermore, it is stated that with the exception of actions taken or not before the end of the specified period, a law passed by parliament that parliament would not have been able to make had it not passed a resolution will, to the extent of that incompetence, no longer be in effect 6 months after the resolution has ceased to be enforced.

What does Article 250 of the Constitution of India state?

Article 250 provides for the powers of parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the state list if a proclamation of emergency is an operation. It states that while a proclamation of emergencies is in effect, parliament shall have the authority to enact legislation pertaining to any of the subject matters included in the state list for the entire or any portion of the territory of India. 

It further states that a law passed by parliament that it would not have been able to pass had not a proclamation of emergency been issued will, to the extent of its incompetence, no longer be in effect 6 months after the proclamation has ended, with the exception of actions taken or not taken before the end of the specified period.

What does Article 252(1) of the Constitution of India state?

Article 252(1) provides that if the legislatures of two or more States decide that loss governing any subject on which parliament is unable to legislate for the states, aside from those covered by articles 249 and 250, should be passed by the legislatures of those state, then such laws shall be enacted.

Furthermore, if resolutions to the effect are passed by both houses of the legislatures in those States, the parliament may then pass legislation regulating the matter in accordance with those resolutions. Any Act so passed will apply to those States as well as any other state in which it is later adopted by resolution approved by the House, or in the case of a state with two houses, by each house of the legislature.


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A legal tussle between audiobooks and audio summaries : a critical analysis

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This article has been written by Chandrani Mitra pursuing a Diploma in US Intellectual Property Law and Paralegal Studies course from LawSikho.

This article has been edited and published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Meaning of audiobooks

Audiobooks are word-for-word audio recordings of a textbook which are available on various online platforms such as Spotify, Pocket FM, and Kuku FM and can be played on a varied range of electronic devices such as a phone, iPad, computer, bluetooth speakers, etc. This convenience allows individuals to seamlessly integrate audiobooks into their daily routines, whether during commutes, workout sessions, or simply while relaxing at home. Additionally, the ability to play audiobooks across an array of electronic devices, including phones, iPads, computers, and Bluetooth speakers, enhances their accessibility and enables listeners to enjoy their favourite books anytime, anywhere.

Beyond their accessibility, audiobooks captivate listeners with a rich and immersive experience. Professional narrators bring the written word to life with their vocal artistry, infusing characters with personality and emotion. This enhanced storytelling experience transports listeners into the worlds created within the pages of a book, allowing them to connect with the characters, plot, and themes on a deeper level. 

Meaning of audio summaries

Audio summaries are the abridged versions of a textbook that provide an overview of the book and highlight the main ideas and the crux of the book. These summaries are typically narrated by professional voice actors or educators and are often accompanied by background music or sound effects to enhance the listening experience.

Here are some key benefits of using audio summaries:

  1. Efficiency and time-saving: Audio summaries allow individuals to quickly grasp the main ideas and structure of a book or other lengthy text in a relatively short amount of time. This makes them ideal for busy professionals, students with limited time, or anyone looking to gain a quick understanding of a subject without having to read the entire book.
  2. Convenience and multitasking: Audio summaries can be listened to while multitasking, such as during a commute, while exercising, or while performing other activities that don’t require full attention. This makes them a great way to learn and absorb information while maximising efficiency.

Concept of copyright

Copyright is a legal right that is enjoyed by the owner of the copyright, wherein they enjoy the exclusive right of reproduction, adaptation, translation and communication of literary work to the public. A book is a literary work, and the exclusive right to reproduce it lies with the owner of the copyright. The owner of a copyright is generally the author of such a literary work, and the copyright remains valid until sixty years after the death of the author. 

In this article, we will delve deep into the battle between audiobooks and audio summaries from the perspective of copyright laws in India. The case that served as a precedent in the matter is the case of Pocket FM Private Ltd. vs. Mebigo Labs Private Ltd. & Ors. (2021), heard by the High Court of Delhi.

Relevant legal provisions of the Copyright Act, 1967

Copyright

Copyright is an intellectual property right that gives the creator of the property the exclusive right to reproduce their work for any purpose. It also includes the right to adapt and translate their work for purposes that are commercial or otherwise. However, at the discretion of the copyright owner, such rights of reproduction, adaptation and translation can be transferred to another person. In India, the legislation regarding copyright is the Copyright Act of 1957 which outlines the various provisions related to copyrights, infringement of copyrights and remedies for such infringement.

The meaning of copyright has been explained in Section 14 of the Copyright Act as an exclusive entitlement to perform or authorise certain acts regarding an original literary, dramatic, musical, artistic work, computer programmes, cinematograph films or sound recordings. 

As for literary work, copyright includes exclusive rights in relation to such work to reproduce, issue copies, perform a public performance, make any cinematograph films or sound recordings and do any kind of translation or adaptation.

Infringement of copyright

The claim regarding copyright arises as soon as an original work is created and copyright is said to be infringed if any of the rights of the copyright owner are taken away without their authorisation. 

Section 51 of the Copyright Act, 1957, provides for the infringement of copyright. It says that copyright is infringed when:

  • There is unauthorised engagement by any person in an action that is the exclusive right of the owner of the copyright.
  • Any person who allows for profit, a location where such copyrighted work could be distributed without authorisation.
  • Any person who sells, lets for hire, distributes or imports any infringing copies of work.

Remedies for Infringement of copyright

Two types of remedies are available to the owner of the copyright in case of infringement of copyright:

  • Civil remedies of injunction, damages, accounts, etc. are provided under Section 55(1) of the Copyright Act, 1957.
  • According to Section 63 of the Copyright Act, 1957, any person who infringes copyright is punishable with imprisonment of six months to three years and a fine of fifty thousand rupees to two lakh rupees. 

Legal provisions relating to audiobooks

Audiobooks are audio recordings wherein the original text from a book is read word for word. As an intellectual property, it can be described as an adaptation of a literary work, and it falls under the purview of the Copyright Act, 1957. So, in order to create an audiobook, permission and authorisation have to be obtained from the owner of the copyright so that such an audiobook does not constitute an infringement of copyright. Therefore, acquiring a licence or entering into an agreement with the author or the publishing house of the literary work that grants the requisite rights is an essential step before creating an audiobook.

Legal provisions relating to audio summaries

Audio summaries are an abridgement or an excerpt of a literary work that describes the outline of the contents of the book and attempts to recount the essence of the work. So, audio summaries may be described as abridgements and adaptations of literary work as per the provisions of Section 2(a)(iii) of the Copyright Act, 1957. 

Since it falls under the purview of the Copyright Act, necessary authorizations are required before creating an audio summary, just like in the case of audiobooks, so that the public performance or distribution of such audio summaries does not constitute an infringement of copyright. Due to the possibility of varied interpretations of any literary work, it becomes more important for the copyright owners to authorise such audio summaries, because if any wrong interpretation of the work is to reach the public, it might affect the saleability of the work adversely.

Nevertheless, if such audio summaries were created for private or personal use, for criticism or review, or as a means of reporting current events, then it would not constitute an infringement of copyright, even if a licence for the same has not been obtained from the copyright owner. It is mentioned in Section 52(a) of the Copyright Act, 1957. 

Difference between audiobooks and audio summaries

Audiobooks and audio summaries are both formats for consuming written works, but there are some key legal differences between the two.

Copyright law

The main legal difference between audiobooks and audio summaries lies in their treatment under copyright law. Audiobooks are generally considered to be derivative works of the original written work, and they are therefore subject to the same copyright protection as the original work. This means that in order to create an audiobook, the producer must obtain permission from the copyright holder of the original work.

Audio summaries, on the other hand, are not considered to be derivative works. This is because they are not a complete retelling of the original work, but rather a condensed version that focuses on the main points. As a result, audio summaries are not subject to the same copyright protection as audiobooks, and they can be created without obtaining permission from the copyright holder of the original work.

Fair use

In addition to copyright law, the legal distinction between audiobooks and audio summaries is also affected by the fair use doctrine. The fair use doctrine allows limited use of copyrighted material without obtaining permission from the copyright holder. This means that it is possible to create an audio summary of a copyrighted work without infringing on the copyright, as long as the summary is fair and transformative.

To be considered fair use, an audio summary must meet the following criteria:

  • The summary must be used for a non-commercial purpose, such as education or research.
  • The summary must be a transformative work, meaning that it must add something new and original to the original work.
  • The summary must not adversely affect the market for the original work.

Leading case on legal tussle between audiobooks and audio summaries

The legal tussle between audio books and audio summaries was popularly observed in the leading case of Pocket FM Private Limited vs. Mebigo Labs Private Limited & Ors., instituted in May 2021 in the Delhi High Court. 

Facts of the case

The case mentioned above had the following key facts:

  • Pocket FM, which is an online platform that streams podcasts and audiobooks, was claiming to be the sole licensee of a renowned publishing house known as Manjul Publishing House. 
  • The licence allowed Pocket FM to create and broadcast audiobooks, which were the Hindi translations of literary works of which Manjul Publishing House was the copyright owner. 
  • Kuku FM, which is one of the competitor platforms of Pocket FM, had allegedly broadcast in their podcast the audio summaries of the books to which the latter had exclusive rights as per the agreement between Manjul Publishing House and Pocket FM. 
  • Later, an agreement was electronically signed between Kuku FM and the publishing house authorising the former to create and broadcast audio summaries in their podcast, but shortly after, Kuku FM was informed that since the audio rights of the script did not lie with the publishing house, the contract was void. However, Kuku FM broadcasted the audio summaries on their app.
  • In light of the above circumstances, a case had been instituted in the Delhi High Court by Pocket FM, alleging Kuku FM to have been infringing copyrights. 
  • The plaintiff, Pocket FM, had sought an ex parte injunction to restrain Kuku FM from “distributing, publishing, offering for sale, communicating to the public or broadcasting through any media or platform the novel ‘Main Teri Chandani’.”

Outcome of the case

Pocket FM and Kuku FM reached a settlement out of court. The case stemmed from an agreement between Kuku FM and Pocket FM, in which Kuku FM had agreed not to create or upload any audiobooks in the future without Pocket FM’s express permission. However, Kuku FM subsequently began to create and upload audio summaries of books, which Pocket FM alleged infringed on its exclusive licence.

In its ruling, the Delhi High Court agreed with Pocket FM’s arguments and found that Kuku FM’s audio summaries were indeed an infringement of copyright. The court noted that the audio summaries were substantially similar to the original audiobooks, and that they were likely to cause confusion among consumers.

The court also noted that Kuku FM’s actions were particularly egregious because they had been taken in violation of a binding agreement. The court held that Kuku FM’s actions constituted a willful and deliberate infringement of Pocket FM’s copyright.

As a result of the court’s ruling, Kuku FM was ordered to take down the audio summaries from its platform and to refrain from creating or uploading any audiobooks in the future without Pocket FM’s permission. The court also awarded Pocket FM damages for the infringement of its copyright.

The Delhi High Court’s ruling is a significant victory for Pocket FM and for the protection of copyright in India. The ruling sends a clear message that copyright infringement will not be tolerated and that those who infringe on copyright will be held liable for their actions.

This ruling is also significant because it highlights the importance of exclusive licences in the digital age. In an era where content is easily shared and distributed online, exclusive licences are essential for protecting the rights of content creators and ensuring that they are fairly compensated for their work.

Analysis of the case

When a literary work is created, the copyright for it lies with the author of the work. In India, such copyright need not be mandatorily registered according to the provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957. Such ownership can be transferred by the owner at their discretion. In this case, the copyright of various literary works was with a publishing house, namely, Manjul Publishing House, who had entered into an agreement with Pocket FM to create audiobooks related to some of their literary work, making them their exclusive licensee. Then they had entered into another agreement with Kuku FM, who, on the basis of such an agreement, had created audio summaries and broadcast them on their platform. Shortly after, Kuku FM was informed by the publishing house that the agreement entered into between them was void since the rights over the audio did not lie with them. In spite of that, Kuku FM did not take down the audio summaries from their platform and sought the defence of the judgement of Madras High Court in the case E.M. Forster & Ors. vs. A.N. Parasuram  (1964), wherein the Hon’ble Court had ruled that even if an audio summary is the abridgement of a novel, it can be treated as his own creation if it serves as a guide book, and it will not come under the purview of copyright. However, there was no critical thinking involved in the audio summaries created by Kuku FM, and so they had to agree to take down the audio summaries. 

Conclusion

Audiobooks and audio summaries are both under the purview of copyright. Nonetheless, in the case of audio summaries, the law is a little vague as to what constitutes an infringement of copyright if created without a valid licence. In order to fall under the ambit of Section 52 of the Act, the audio summaries need to have critical thinking and analysis in addition to the abridgement of the original textbook.

References

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Influence of corporate governance laws on financial performance and stability of an enterprise

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This article has been written by Tejal Vengurlekar pursuing a Diploma in Corporate Law & Practice: Transactions, Governance and Disputes course from LawSikho.

This article has been edited and published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Introduction

Corporate governance laws have a major impact on the financial performance and stability of a company. These laws set guidelines for how businesses should be run, emphasising transparency, accountability, and ethical behaviour. When companies follow these laws, they are more likely to have strong financial controls, accurate reporting, and effective risk management practices. This helps improve their financial performance by reducing the likelihood of fraud or mismanagement. Additionally, corporate governance laws often require independent oversight through boards of directors and audit committees, ensuring that decisions are made in the best interest of the company and its shareholders. This contributes to the overall financial stability of the enterprise. So, implementing good governance practices is very important for companies to thrive financially.

Need for corporate governance

The need for corporate governance is important for companies to be well-managed, accountable, and transparent. Corporate governance is about how a company is directed and controlled. The governance structure decides who has what rights and responsibilities in the company, like the board of directors, managers, shareholders, creditors, auditors, regulators, and other people involved. It also sets the rules and procedures for making decisions about the company. The following are corporate governance requirements:

Changing structure of ownership

Corporate governance protects the rights of stakeholders by making sure they are followed. Since a company has many stakeholders with different views, corporate governance helps in managing the ownership structure of the company without harming its reputation. 

Therefore, corporate governance helps in changing the ownership structure of the company, and it would not affect the goodwill of the company.

Enhancing enterprise valuation

Enhancing operational transparency and management accountability is like giving a power boost to the company. When the company becomes more transparent and holds its management accountable, it builds trust with investors. And this trust increases the worth of the corporation.

Social responsibility

The importance of social responsibility is increasing day by day. The Board of Directors plays a crucial role in safeguarding the rights of customers, employees, shareholders, and other stakeholders. This can become possible only if the board of directors uses corporate governance.

Growing number of scams

In recent years, we’ve been witnessing an increase in scams, frauds, and corrupt practices not only in India but worldwide. The misuse and misappropriation of public money are serious issues that need to be addressed. One effective way to prevent these scams and financial irregularities is for the company to start implementing corporate governance principles.

Globalisation

The big companies that are selling their goods in the global market need to attract foreign investors and foreign customers. They have to follow foreign rules and regulations. Without corporate governance, it would be nearly impossible for companies to enter, survive, and thrive in the global market.

Better-decision making

Good governance plays a vital role in ensuring well-managed and accountable decision-making throughout a business. When decisions are made with transparency and accountability, they tend to be of higher quality and lead to better outcomes for the company. 

Corporate governance and financial performance   

Theoretical review

Agency theory

Agency theory is really important when it comes to studying corporate governance. It provides insights into how the relationship between managers and shareholders can affect the company’s bottom line.

By aligning the interests of managers with the financial performance of the company, such as through variable remuneration based on growth, the agency theory helps ensure that managers act in the best interest of shareholders. This can lead to improved decision-making, increased accountability, and ultimately better financial results.

Additionally, agency theory emphasises the importance of transparency, control mechanisms, and proper governance practices. By implementing these measures, companies can reduce conflicts of interest, mitigate agency costs, and enhance overall financial performance. By implementing suitable incentives and controls, corporate governance helps to minimise conflicts of interest and enhance the company’s financial performance. 

In summary, agency theory contributes to the understanding of how governance structures and incentives impact the financial performance of an enterprise. By aligning the interests of managers and shareholders and implementing effective control mechanisms, companies can strive for improved financial outcomes.

Stewardship theory

Stewardship theory suggests that when managers have a sense of ownership and act as stewards of the company, it can positively influence financial performance. 

In stewardship theory, managers are seen as responsible caretakers of the company’s resources and are motivated to act in the best interest of shareholders. They focus on long-term goals, make decisions that benefit the company as a whole, and prioritise the sustainable growth and profitability of the enterprise. 

When managers embrace the principles of stewardship, it can lead to improved financial performance. Their commitment to the company’s success can result in better decision-making, increased innovation, efficient resource allocation, and stronger relationships with stakeholders. These factors ultimately contribute to enhanced financial outcomes for the enterprise. 

Resource dependence theory

Resource dependence theory is an interesting perspective to explore when considering the impact on the financial performance of an enterprise. According to this theory, organisations rely on external resources such as capital, information, and partnerships to function effectively. When an enterprise effectively manages its external resource dependencies, it can positively influence its financial 

Transaction cost theory

Transaction cost theory suggests that the costs associated with conducting business transactions can impact the financial performance of an enterprise. These costs include not only the actual monetary costs of transactions but also the time, efforts, and resources required to complete them. By understanding and managing transaction costs effectively, businesses can improve their overall financial performance.

Stakeholder theory

Stakeholder theory states that considering the interests and needs of various stakeholders, such as customers, employees, suppliers, and the community, can positively impact the financial performance of the enterprise. By prioritising stakeholder relationships and addressing their concerns, businesses can enhance customer loyalty, attract talented employees, strengthen supplier’s relationships, and build a strong reputation in the community. All these factors can contribute to improved financial performance. The companies have accountability for management to a wide range of stakeholders, such as employees, customers, and suppliers. The theory focuses on managerial decision-making and the interests of all stakeholders. 

Thus, effective corporate governance will consider the interests of both stakeholders and shareholders.

Effect of governance on performance

Corporate governance is a significant factor that influences an economy’s growth prospects. Good governance practices reduce investor risk, improve financial performance, and attract more investors. At its most basic level, corporate governance addresses issues that arise from the separation of ownership and control. But corporate governance goes beyond just establishing a clear relationship between shareholders and managers. Strong governance standards provide better access to capital and contribute to economic growth.  

When a firm adopts corporate governance, it appears to have a better risk return for investors. These governance mechanisms assure investors that they will receive satisfactory returns on their investments. If these mechanisms did not exist or did not function properly, outside investors would be less inclined to invest in the firms or buy their equity securities. This would lead to missed business opportunities and financial distress that could spread to firms, employees, and consumers. 

Poor corporate governance in a company often stems from a lack of understanding of how to implement effective corporate practices in business activities. As a result, some companies experience losses and even face the risk of bankruptcy. This is caused by an unset relationship between stakeholders and investors, inefficient financial reporting, and weak enforcement of laws within the company. On the other hand, implementing good corporate governance practices can lead to more effective and efficient financial performance.  

Thus, corporate governance measures have a significant impact on a company’s financial performance.

Corporate governance laws in India

Companies Act, 2013

This Act lays down the structure for corporate governance in India. It includes provisions related to the composition and functioning of boards of directors, shareholder rights, disclosure requirements, and the responsibilities of directors and auditors. Key provisions of the Act include:

  1. Board of directors
    • Composition: The Act mandates the inclusion of independent directors in the board, ensuring a balance of interests and promoting transparency.
    • Functioning: The Act requires regular board meetings, outlining the duties and responsibilities of directors, including decision-making processes and risk management.
  2. Shareholder rights
    • Voting: The Act safeguards shareholder rights by providing voting rights on important corporate matters, empowering them to influence decision-making.
    • Information disclosure: Companies are required to disclose financial statements, director remuneration, related party transactions, and other relevant information to shareholders.
  3. Disclosure requirements
    • Financial reporting: The Act prescribes stringent financial reporting standards, ensuring transparency and accountability in financial disclosures.
    • Corporate social responsibility: Companies are mandated to undertake corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities, fostering a sense of social responsibility among businesses.
  4. Responsibilities of directors and auditors
    • Directors’ duties: The Act outlines the duties and responsibilities of directors, emphasising the importance of acting in the best interests of the company and exercising due diligence.
    • Auditors’ responsibilities: The Act defines the role and responsibilities of auditors, emphasising their independence and the need for thorough audits to ensure the accuracy and reliability of financial statements.

The Companies Act of 2013 aims to establish a robust corporate governance framework in India, promoting transparency, accountability, and ethical practices in the corporate sector. It seeks to protect the interests of shareholders, creditors, and other stakeholders, fostering a conducive environment for investment and economic growth

SEBI Listing Regulations

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has established listing regulations that govern companies listed on stock exchanges. These regulations cover various aspects of corporate governance, including board composition, audit committees, related-party transactions, and disclosure requirements.

Independent directors

The Companies Act, 2013 requires certain companies to appoint independent directors on their boards. These directors are expected to provide unbiased and objective judgement in decision-making processes.                                              

Insider trading regulations

SEBI has implemented regulations to prevent insider trading, which is the illegal practice of trading securities based on non-public information. The main objectives of these regulations are to make sure that markets are fair and transparent. 

These are examples of the corporate governance laws in India. It’s important for companies to comply with these laws to maintain good governance practices.

Corporate governance impact on financial stability

Corporate governance has a positive impact on the financial stability of an enterprise. When a company has effective governance practices in place, it helps ensure that the company is being managed in a responsible and transparent manner; this, in turn, can lead to better financial performance and stability.

With strong corporate governance, there is a clear structure and accountability within the organisation. This helps in making informed and strategic decisions, which can contribute to long-term financial stability. It also helps in managing risks effectively, preventing fraud, and ensuring compliance with laws and regulations.

Financial stability can be achieved only by the interaction of three basic pillars: sound leadership within the company, effective regulation and supervision, and market discipline. These three elements form the foundation for a healthy financial system. At the firm level, sound leadership is crucial in safeguarding against financial system instability. It starts with good corporate governance, which includes having capable and experienced directors and management. They should have a clear and logical strategy and business plan in place. Responsibility and accountability are also key aspects of sound leadership.

On the other hand, weak corporate governance can lead to financial instability. Lack of transparency, inadequate risk management, and unethical practices can spoil an investor’s confidence and result in financial difficulties for the enterprise.

In short, strong corporate governance positively impacts the financial stability of an enterprise by promoting responsible management, risk mitigation, investor confidence, and access to capital.

Conclusion

It is concluded from the above that corporate governance laws have a significant impact on the financial performance and stability of an enterprise. These laws ensure transparency, accountability, and ethical behaviour within companies. By following these laws, companies can improve their financial performance through risk management, strong internal controls, and accurate financial reporting. Additionally, corporate governance laws promote investor confidence and attract capital, contributing to the overall financial stability of the enterprise.  

Therefore, if companies aim to enhance their value and growth, it is imperative for them to adopt corporate governance principles and effective decision-making processes. 

 References

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Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966) : case analysis

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This article is written by Shenbaga Seeralan S., an advocate practising at the Madurai Bench of Madras High Court. It aims at discussing this landmark case in exhaustive depth. It tries to cover various aspects of the case, including facts, arguments, provisions, precedents, judgement, and the questions followed thereafter. This article also strives to give a personalised case analysis based on the rationale and morals on which the entire case is based upon.

Table of Contents

Introduction 

Confession, a self exculpatory or inculpatory statement to express one’s own perspective of an event. In legal terms, a confession stands as a corroboratory statement to the material evidence. In this article, we will try to analyse the case of Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966) to understand the nature of confession, provisions related to confession, and legal standpoint. We also try to circumspect when confessions are admissible and when they are not. The Courts always have a sceptical look towards the confession, as is right to do so, since a taint can be easily inflicted over a confession through various means. They skim through various Acts and the corresponding provisions to scale the length of confession and its aftermath before delivering a judgement in this case. Along with the details and analysis of the case, we will also try to see the moral and humanitarian perspective of the judgement through this article.

Details of Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966)

Case name

Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar

Case no

Criminal Appeal No. 37 of 1965

Equivalent Citation

1966 AIR 119

Act involved

The Indian Evidence Act (1872)

Important provisions

Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, (1860).

Facts of Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966) 

There was a quarrel between the accused and Ratni (the accused’s aunt) related to a property that Ratni gave away to her daughter and son-in-law. The accused claimed that since his aunt did not have any sons and she is a widow, he and his brother are entitled to inherit the property. This quarrel created a rift among them and incited the accused to have murderous thoughts. On August 11, 1963, around 7:00 a.m., the petitioner killed Somra( the son-in-law of Ratni) at a forest in Dungi Jharan Hills, followed by Chamin (the daughter of Ratni) in the field, and then Ratni and Dilu (the grandson of Ratni) at their home in Jamtoli village. The petitioner used an agricultural tool called “Tangi ” to serve severe blows to all four who have been killed, after which the petitioner hid the bodies at the respective murder sites.

On confession to the police station, the petitioner, along with the sub-inspector, visited the murder sites, and the petitioner himself identified the sites where dead bodies were hidden and also showed the murder weapon to the investigating officer. The confession was recorded in Palkot police station, Ranchi, on August 11, 1963, at 3:15 p.m. on Aghnoo Nagesia. The report was made in writing by Sub Inspector H.P. Choudhury, and the appellant affixed his thumb impression on the report. On medical examination, the murder weapon was identified as the source of causing fatal blows, which happened to be the reason for their death. The size and cut of the wound on all four dead bodies also matched with the size and sharpness of “Tangi”. A prosecution witness pointed out that the petitioner was seen leaving for the forest around the time of the murder. All the recovery matched the confession exactly, including the position of dead bodies, sheets used to cover the dead bodies, the weapon of murder and its place of concealment, and the time of death. The motive and relevant facts also matched with the local information.

On the basis of his confession, an FIR (First Information Report) was filed under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. He was convicted and sentenced to death by the Judicial Commissioner of Chotanagpur. The guilty then went for a criminal appeal to the Honourable High Court of Patna in Criminal Appeal No. 200 of 1964, where the judgement of the Judicial Commissioner was confirmed and the death sentence was assured on November 9, 1964. This case is a criminal appeal to the judgement made by the Honourable High Court of Patna to the Honourable Supreme Court of India. The appellant was accused of murdering four of his relatives in cold blood, based on his incriminating confession to the local police station. The appellant, on special leave, appeals to the Honourable Supreme Court.

Judgement of the High Court

The accused, after being convicted by the trial court, appealed to the Honourable High Court of Patna in 1964. The High Court looked into the case with the same view as that of the trial court. The High Court took cognizance of the fact that the confession made by the accused was voluntary in nature and there was no coercion from the investigating officer. So, Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act can not be applied. Though, according to Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, a confession to a police officer cannot be proved, yet the evidence obtained out of it, proves the crime without any doubt. Also, the medical examination and the prosecution witness produced affirmativeness to the accusation. This led the High Court to derive the conclusion of upholding the conviction made under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, thereby dismissing the appeal made by the accused.

Issues raised before the Supreme Court

  1. Whether the entire portion of a confession to a police officer is inadmissible under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
  2. Whether a portion of the confession can be admissible and a portion can be non-admissible ?
  3. How can the exception given under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, related to confession be treated?

Arguments of the parties in Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966)

Petitioner 

The petitioner appealed to the Honourable Supreme Court through his advocate, Mr. K. K. Jain. The counsel claimed that under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any statement made to the police officer shall not be used to prove against him or her. This was the major contention put forward by the counsel in defence of the accusation. It was argued that the entire case is based on the confessional statement made by the accused to the police officer. The counsel highlighted that any confessional statement should be obtained in the presence of any metropolitan magistrate or judicial magistrate, as mandated by Section 164(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. It was also brought to the notice of the bench that under Section 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no statement to the police officer can be used as evidence for trial, and the accused need not affirm his or her signature to such a confession in writing. The advocate presented the precedent of Emperor v. Harman Kisha (1934), where it was held that the entire confessional report was inadmissible under Section 25 of the Act.

The counsel was clear in his point that when a confession is contended to be inadmissible, the entire portion of it should be considered as void. Acquiring information out of one portion and neglecting the other portion would serve injustice to the laws framed. The petitioner’s side claimed that according to Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any type of admission can never be conclusive proof of an offence; rather, it may operate as an estoppel. It was argued that if the court allowed a part of the confessional statement to be proved against the accused without any material or conclusive evidence, then this would remain a wrong precedent for the forthcoming cases. It was pointed out that there was no direct eye witness to the actual occurrence of the murder. The petitioner, through his advocate, also contended that the reason confessional statements are prevented from being taken as evidence is that they might be obtained by force or an offer, which is prohibited under Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act. When a part of  such a confession is considered as evidence to prove an offence, then the entire case would be tampered. The counsel also firmly contended that the laws framed were based on public policy, so they should be followed word by word. Any contention can be met only by the legislature by amending the law. 

The counsel argued that when the proof of confession is excluded from the entire case, then there is no material evidence or witness to incriminate his client. When a single sentence of an entire confession is taken as evidence, it might prove hazardous to the entire evidentiary system. For example, when a person confesses that he drove a vehicle at 80 kmph, he did not blow the horn or apply brakes. While viewing individually, no statement turns out to be a confession, but when viewed as a whole, it amounts to a confession. So it is only logical to view confession as a whole and not in parts. Though Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act provides an exception to Sections 24, 25, and 26 of the Act, the entire portion of the confession should be viewed in whole, not in parts. So based on the above provisions and arguments, the petitioner, through his advocate, pleaded before the Honourable Supreme Court to allow his appeal and dismiss all charges against him (murder charge under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code), thereby acquitting him and setting him at liberty. 

Respondent

The respondent here was the State of Bihar and was represented by Mr. S.P. Varma and R.N. Sachthey. The respondent side mainly focused their argument on proving the admissible part of the confession, though it was made to a police officer. It is also worth noting that they were backed by the judgement of a trial court as well as the High Court of Patna. Both courts provided the death penalty under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code for the accused, accepting the fact that though a confession was made to a police officer, the evidence obtained out of the information received from the confession is admitted under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act. The respondent’s counsel was aware that the entire case was based on the confession provided by the accused. Every evidence collected was obtained thereafter. The judgement of Patna High Court in the case of Lachrymose Mundane v. State of Bihar (1963), was quoted to stress the argument of accepting a portion of the confession as evidence. The counsel argued that Section 27 of the act also provides legal leeway to accept provable evidence obtained from confession. Therefore, the respondent’s side pointed out that, according to Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the facts thereby discovered after the information received from the accused can be proved.

The contention against the respondent’s side was Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, which proposes a ban on confessions made to a police officer. The counsel highlighted that this ban was proposed with the view that a confession to a police officer is obtained out of fear, coercion, or threat. But in this case, the accused barged into the police station and confessed to the crime by himself without the involvement of the police. Though the provision proposes a complete ban, the confession should not be entirely rescinded, as it may contain some crucial information regarding the crime, as argued by the respondent’s counsel.

The respondent was also of the view that the evidence that was obtained by the search conducted after the information from the confession yielded an undeniable conclusion that the accused was responsible for the murder of all four. Pointing out in order, firstly, the bodies of all four were recovered in places as mentioned by the accused in his confession. One in the forest, one in the field, and two in the victim’s house. Secondly, the weapon used was recovered from the site, and all injuries caused to the victims were conclusively proven to have been caused by the weapon identified by the accused. Thirdly, the sheets used to cover the dead bodies were identified by the accused, and the blood stains on the recovered sheets matched the blood of the victims. Finally, the accused was seen going to the site of the murder by a prosecution witness in the early hours of the day of the murder. The respondent argued that no one other than the person who actually committed the crime can identify all these material evidence with this precision. 

So, considering the discovery of dead bodies, the matching of the murder weapon, the concurrence in timing, and the actual presence of the petitioner at the murder site, according to the statement of the prosecution witness, makes him guilty of the offence. The respondent pleaded to award the accused a capital penalty for the crime he committed under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

Law discussed in Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966)

This case law can be understood in detail if we first look at the provisions involved in each aspect of the case. The prominence of each section can be understood if we delve deep into the intricacies of this case. The provisions and cases referred to in this case law have been listed as follows:

Provisions

Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

This section deals with the punishment for murder. Any person committing murder is liable to be punished with the death penalty or life imprisonment along with fine. This is a cognizable offence, which means a police officer can make the arrest without a warrant. It is also a non-bailable offence and is triable by the Court of Sessions.

Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1972

This section deals with confessions caused by threats or promises. Any confession obtained out of threat or promise shall be deemed to be inadmissible in a criminal proceeding. It is the discretion of the court to decide whether the person in authority has caused any kind of inducement to make the accused confess. This would give the accused a chance to avert the dire punishment that he may receive if the proceedings continue.

Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with the confession to a police officer. A confession made to a police officer shall not be used as evidence to prove the offence committed by the accused. This section is an outcome of the probability that the confession so obtained might be the result of coercion, as described in the previous section.

Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with confession while in custody. A confession made by the accused while in custody can be proved only when it is made before a Magistrate. The Magistrate is considered as the embodiment of the court, so any confession made before him is considered as the confession made in court.

Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with the amount of information from confession that can be proved. When particular facts are discovered only after obtaining information from confession, those facts can be proved. This would always deal with specific information that can be acknowledged only by the person who committed the offence. This section acts as an exception to confession’s inadmissibility.

Section 28 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with confession in the absence of force. When the Court believes that any incitement of threat or promise is removed before obtaining confession, then such confession is made relevant. This shows the supremacy of the court and the trust it embodies in the legal system. The court thoroughly engages all parties before concluding if there is any threat or promise.

Section 29 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with relevance based on the promise of secrecy. When a confession is made in secret based on the promise of secrecy, it does not become irrelevant if otherwise it was relevant. It is to be noted that the confession should have some prerequisites, like that the giver must be warned that the confession can be used against him, that he or she should be mentally conscious while making a confession, and that no deception should be practised.

Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 

This section deals with confessions affecting joint parties of the trial. When a confession made by a person is proved against him, the court may consider it applying to all the parties jointly accused of an offence, provided that all have been accused of the same offence and are all involved in the same trial.

Section 162 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 

This section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) deals with the usage of statements to a police officer as evidence. Any statement given by the accused or any person during the investigation need not be signed. This includes any records that are created during the process of investigation or trail and recorded in any place, including the police diary. But when called for trial or as a witness under the authority of the court, the prosecution can record any statement.

Section 163 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 

This section deals with inducements. Making an offer, threat, or promise to obtain a statement is prohibited in accordance with Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It also includes the condition that no officer shall prevent any person from making such a statement.

Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 

This section deals with the recording of confessions. Any statement or confession made by a person should be made before a Magistrate, whether or not within jurisdiction. It is also noted that any such confession should be recorded in audio-video format in the presence of the defence advocate. It is mandatory to explain to the person making such a confession that it might be used against him or her during the trial.

Case Laws

Faddi v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1860)

In this case, admissibility of evidence is being discussed with reference to Section 21 and Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and Section 162 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. This was a murder trial, and the accused was held guilty by the lower court and the high court of Bombay. The guilty went for an appeal by special leave to the Honourable Supreme Court of India, claiming that the FIR report is inadmissible as evidence.

On thorough examination, the honourable judges gave a decision that admissions under Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, are relevant and can be proved in court of law. It does not carry any prohibition under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act or Section 162 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. The Court rightly pointed out that the FIR report was not a confessional statement in this case; rather, it was merely a statement of admission, which contained questions that are to be determined by the court. The statement was also not given to the police officer to bar it under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The Honourable Supreme Court favoured the judgements of the lower court and the honourable High Court.

Deoman Upadhyaya v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1960) 

In this case, the admissibility of a statement made by a person in custody and a person not in custody is analysed with respect to the right to equality under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. This was a murder trial, where the accused offered a statement pointing to the location of the murder weapon, which led to the discovery. Based on the circumstantial evidence and the statement of the accused, he was declared as guilty with the death penalty by the session judge. On account of this judgement, the accused appealed to the Honourable High Court, where the judges saw a disparity in treatment between a person in custody and a person not in custody, which was contrary to the right to equality. Also, the court noted that Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, was a reason for this disparity and held it ultra vires to the Constitution of India. Apart from the statement, the remaining evidence was not sufficient to prove the guilt on the vision of the High Court.

This case, then on appeal by the prosecution, went to the Honourable Supreme Court of India. A constitutional bench of five judges, presided over the case and held that Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is not ultra vires to the constitution. The right to equality is not a constant phenomenon; rather, it is circumstantial, and its practicality has to be determined by the legislature. The Court also noted that the person approaching the police officer to make a confession is considered to be under the custodial protection of the officer. The Honourable Supreme Court favoured the judgement of the Sessions Court and termed the accused guilty, thereby restoring his death sentence. Also, the validity of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872, is reassured.

Hanumant v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1975) 

In this case, two appellants were convicted of forgery of a tender based on a complaint filed by the Assistant Inspector General of Police, Anti-Corruption Department, Nagpur. On inquiry of the case, the learned Special Magistrate convicted the accused under Section 120B and Section 465 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. This carried a fine and rigorous imprisonment for six months. The accused appealed to the Sessions Court, where the charge under Section 120B was reversed and the charge under Section 465 was held valid. This was again appealed in the Honourable High Court without any change in the judgement. Then the case was brought to the Honourable Supreme Court of India.

Under Article 136 of the Indian Constitution, by means of special leave, this case was appealed to the Supreme Court. The major part of the evidence was the letter written by the accused concerning a tender exhibit (P24). The Supreme Court had the view that, when the letter is read as a whole, neither it poses any injury to the cause nor does it show any means of fraud. The Honourable Supreme Court held that the circumstantial evidence had to be thoroughly investigated and should match the intention to guilt before coming to a conclusion. Every other probability should be neglected before incriminating a person for an offence. Keeping all these in account, the Supreme Court set aside the judgements of all three courts and acquitted the accused.

Harman Kisha v. Emperor (1934) 

In this case, the accused was charged for killing his wife and refusing to have sexual intercourse with him. The accused beat her to death and then went on to give a confessional statement to the nearby police station in Dakore, Uttar Pradesh. The police registered his statement and filed an FIR. The primary witness in this case was the brother of the accused, who gave a statement to the Magistrate under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code. The accused was convicted for murder. But when the case went for an appeal in Sessions Court, the witness changed his statement, causing it to be non-admissible. Thereafter, the only evidence against the accused was the confessional statement. The session judge, in spite of changing statements from the witness, charged the accused with murder.

The case then came to the Bombay High Court, where the learned judge took cognizance that under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, no statement to a police officer can be proved. Also, the police failed to prove that even the murder weapon belonged to the accused and also failed to properly record the statement of the witness. Apart from the confessional statement, no other evidence ties the accused to the murder. Hence, the Honourable High Court held that the evidence is inadmissible and insufficient to hold the conviction.

Shiv Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1962) 

In this case, the accused was charged with the murder of his own son. There was a property dispute, which enraged the father, causing him to kill his own son. After killing his son with the blood tainted sword, he presented himself before the Assistant Superintendent of Police, Jodhpur City, and made a confessional statement regarding the murder. The case went to the Additional Sessions Judge, Jodhpur, where the accused changed his statement and inflicted the blame on his daughter-in-law and brother. Previously, the accused’s daughter-in-law was the major witness to the murder. The learned Sessions Judge did not believe the statement of the witness, disregarded the confession of the accused, and set him free of charges.

Criminal litigation

The case then went to the High Court of Rajasthan, where the honourable court quoted some important points. Firstly, the self-exculpatory statement of a person cannot be accepted as proof. Then the judge looked into the facts and found that the accused purchased the sword with a receipt, sharpened it, and it belonged to him. The accused reported to the police station with the same sword, with blood stains on it. On medical examination, the reason for death was injury due to a sword and the blood on the murder weapon matched with the accused’s son. There was a witness to the actual killing, and the accused rightly pointed out the dead body. So all these facts corroborated the confession, and hence the court held that in spite of the inadmissibility of confession under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, other evidence proved beyond doubt that the accused committed the murder and imprisoned him for life.

Mian Noor Alias Bijji Khan v. Emperor (1919) 

In this case, the present accused, Bijji Khan, was charged under Section 355 of the Indian Penal Code with throwing a stone on the carriage of the municipal commissioner. But initially, Jakka Khan was prosecuted for the same offence. During the trial, the latter made a statement to the Magistrate under Section 164 of the CrPC incriminating the present accused. The Magistrate accepted this statement and incriminated Bijji Khan.

The case went to the Allahabad High Court on appeal. The judge was astonished by the fact that a statement from the accused incriminated a new person for the same crime.  The judge also noted that the first accused was talking to Bijji Khan before trial and, in any way, might have influenced him. The Court rejected the statement of Jakka Khan and expressed that the evidence was insufficient to prove his guilt. Therefore, the sentence was set aside, and the appellant was released.

Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab (1952) 

In this case, the accused was tried for killing her husband by means of poisoning. The charges were framed, and she was convicted under Section 302 and Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, for murder and trying to conceal the information by  the Sessions Court. She was sentenced to transportation for life. In an appeal to the High Court, the murder charges were acquitted due to the fact that the poisoning could have been done by anyone else and there was no proper eyewitness of evidence to concretely prove her involvement. But she was convicted under Section 201 of the IPC for seven years of rigorous imprisonment. 

In an appeal to the Supreme Court of India, the honourable judges analysed the facts of the case and the evidence presented. There was a self-exculpatory confession made by the accused. Since it was exculpatory, it was neglected, but the incriminating facts in the confession were used against her. The court was of the opinion that if the statement is inadmissible, then the entire portion is inadmissible. Therefore, she was acquitted of all charges and set free.

Kathi Kalgu Oghad and others v. State of Bombay (1961)

In this case, the accused was charged under Section 302, read along with Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. During custody, the investigating officer acquires a specimen copy of the handwriting of the accused to match with the handwritten note found at the murder site. In the trial court, the accused were given life imprisonment and rigorous imprisonment for 2 years. In an appeal to the High Court, there was a question regarding the authenticity of the specimen and whether obtaining a specimen that can incriminate himself is contrary to Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution. On account of this, the High Court acquitted the accused. The case then went to revision and appeal multiple times.

To solve this important question of law, the case came before the biggest constitutional bench of 11 judges in the Honourable Supreme Court to decide on the issue. The key considerations before the Supreme Court were 

  • Whether, through the production of specimens as evidence, the accused was made a witness against himself under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution?
  • Whether the fact that the accused was in police custody while giving that handwriting specimen means that he might be under threat or influence from the officer?

The Supreme Court held that the mere fact that the accused was in police custody does not mean that he was compelled to do so. Also, a specimen of handwriting obtained from the accused cannot be considered a witness against himself because it is a tool of investigation and can be obtained from any doubtful person. However, the Honourable Court didn’t answer the question of whether the prohibition under Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution would operate before or after the custody of the person.

Bharat v. State of U.P. (1971) 

In this case, the murder of 3 people took place on 10th of december, 1967. The bodies were found by the relative and reported to the police station. Police, on investigation, suspected the younger son of the victim and arrested him. On further investigation, the clothes of the accused were medically examined, and blood stains were found. An eyewitness confirmed the presence of the accused at the murder location during the time of the murder. The investigating officer filed an FIR and proceeded with the trial. The accused was presented before a Magistrate in Sessions Court and asked if he wanted to make a confession. The repercussions of making a confession are explained to him. The accused voluntarily accepted the commission of a blunder crime and quoted property disputes and hate as the reasons for murder. The magistrate took cognizance of it and sentenced him to life imprisonment under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, even though the accused retraced his confession in the later part of the trial. In an appeal to the high court, the court also accepted the judgement of the Sessions Court.

Then, by means of special leave, an appeal was made to the Honourable Supreme Court of India. The learned judges analysed all the evidence and facts and came to the conclusion that a confession can be accepted as evidence only to the satisfaction of the court, based on the supporting evidence. Though the accused retracted his confession, other corroborating facts prove beyond doubt that the accused committed the murder. The court dismissed the appeal and reassured the sentence.

Pyarelal Bhargava v. State of Rajasthan (1963)

In this case, the accused was a Superintendent in the Chief Engineer’s office. He took a file from the office, showed it to a beneficiary, and returned it to the office. On cognizance of this offence, a case of theft and forgery was filed against him under Section 379 and Section 465 of the Indian Penal Code. The Sub-Divisional Magistrate accepted the charges and the confession of the accused and charged him with conviction. On an appeal to the Sessions Court, the judge cleared charges under Section 465 but convicted based on Section 379. On an appeal to the High Court, the court accepted the judgement of the Sessions Court, concerning Pyarelal.

This case, then on special leave, came to the Honourable Supreme Court of India. Three important questions were raised before the court. They were

  • Confession made was not voluntary in nature so it is inadmissible under Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act.
  • Confession was retracted, so without proper material evidence, it should not be relied upon.
  • Meaning of theft under Section 378 of IPC.

The court held that the confession made by the accused was not made under any threat or coercion, as accepted by the judgements of the lower court. On the second question, the fact that the confession was retracted, does not disqualify it from being evidence. On the satisfaction of the court and the availability of proper material facts, even a retraced confession can be used as evidence. Answering the third question, even a temporary disappearance of a document committed by an official is considered theft. The short duration of being missing does not disqualify it from being termed as theft.

Judgement in Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966)

  • On the bench of Honourable Jurists K.Subba Rao, Raghubar Dayal, and R.S. Bachawat, Honourable Justice R.S Bachawat pronounced the judgement.
  • The entire portion of the confession given to the police officer by the accused is inadmissible under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act. The confessional statement not only includes admission of offence but also all the allied facts. But as banned by the Evidence Act, no part of such a confession can be treated as evidence. The reason for such a ban is that a confession may be obtained by force, offer, or threat. Usually, a confession made before a Magistrate under Section 164 of the CrPC is only considered valid.
  • While considering a confession to a police officer as inadmissible, the entire portion is inadmissible. If we consider a particular portion of the confession to be tainted, then the validity of the entire confession comes under question. One cannot consider one portion of the statement admissible and the other portion to be inadmissible.
  • The exception under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act applies only to statements obtained from a person in custody of the police officer. The arrest in this case was made only after obtaining the confession, so it cannot be considered as constructive custody as envisaged by the provision.
  • Thus, the appeal is allowed, and the sentences passed by all the lower courts were set aside, making the appellant free of charges.

Rationale behind this judgement

The bench took cognizance of the fact that the accused was charged under Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which carries a maximum punishment of the death penalty. Both the Sessions Court and the High Court were of the same opinion and gave the accused the death penalty. The prosecution’s case was entirely based upon the FIR, which was the result of a confessional statement provided by the accused. The FIR contained every detail, including the place, date, time, motive, and method of murder. There were, in total, four members of the family who were claimed to have been murdered by the petitioner. This confessional statement was given by the appellant to the Sub Inspector of Police of Palkot station. 

After the FIR was lodged, the appellant, along with the Sub Inspector recovered the weapon used for the murder and the dead bodies, as pointed out in the confession. Once the dead bodies were recovered, a medical examination was conducted, which proved that the recovered murder weapon caused the deaths of all four members. Also, blood stains on the murder weapon matched with the members who were killed. To prove the circumstantial part of the evidence, a prosecution witness was provided, which proved the fact that the appellant went to the forest in the early morning and was seen coming back.

But it was also noted that there is no direct eye witness to the actual occurrence of murder, and the entire case hangs on the string of confessional statement provided by the petitioner. Apart from that, there is no conclusive proof to tie the charges to the accused. Now, there came the question of whether a part of the confession can be used to prove certain facts and a certain portion can be omitted. As defined by the Indian Evidence Act, confession is an admission, so unless its nature of admissibility is prohibited by law, it is considered as evidence. Section 25-27 deals with the admissibility of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act. Also, according to the referred precedent, Faddi v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1964), a statement can be proved only if it is not a confession.

The Court is of the opinion that a confession is considered as a whole entity; it can’t be staggered into multiple parts. Either the entire statement can be accepted or it can be neglected as a whole. A confessional statement not only has the admission of a crime but also other circumstantial facts in it, like motive, weapon, and so on. It would go wrong if one part of the confession containing the circumstantial evidence alone is used for the investigation, eventually proving the crime, but neglecting the self-inculpatory part of the statement. It would be an illogical decision. If a confessional statement is considered to be tainted, then the entirety of the statement is tainted; a statement containing the incriminating facts alone cannot be separated from a tainted confession. This is reinstated in the cases of Hanumant v. State of Madhya Pradesh (1952) and Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab (1952), noting that it is not permitted to separate one part from the confession to make it evidence.

The final question answered by the Honourable Court was whether an exception under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act can be used to accept a confession. The provision speaks about a confession from a person in custody, from which some discovery is made to prove the guilt without any doubt. The court decided that any person can be considered to be under the custody of the police officer only after filing an FIR and making an arrest. Until then, that cannot be considered as a constructive custody. Whether determining the admissibility of a confession based on its custodial nature is violative of the right to equality is answered by the judgement of the case State of Uttar Pradesh v. Deoman Upadhyaya (1960). In this case, since the confession was made to the police office before filing an FIR, it cannot be considered as an admissible evidence.

The only evidence to connect the appellant to the murder was his confessional statement. Any discoveries made, including the murder weapon, the dead bodies, and the sheets used to cover the bodies, were all based on the information obtained from confession. So considering all these rationales, the appellant was relieved of all charges and was set free. 

Inferences

This case proved to be a landmark case, considering the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This is due to the fact that this case tries to envisage the broader concept of confession and interpret all the provisions aligned with confession. The case clearly outlines that there is no absolute bar on the accused to make the confession before a police officer or a police officer receiving the confession from the so-called accused; rather, it merely makes the confession so obtained that it cannot be proved in court either by the investigating officer or the public prosecutor. Many judgments looked at the confession from a broad perspective after this case. For example, in the case of Veera Ibrahim v. State of Maharashtra (1976), the jurists held that confession is not only the acceptance of guilt of an offence but also any substantial fact related to the offence. This includes motive, opportunity, intention, murder weapon, subsequent conduct, etc. 

One more important inference from this case law is that when a suspected person is being interrogated by a police officer relating to a crime, when a suspected person is being arrested by a police officer, or when a person voluntarily comes to the police station, without any formal accusation, if he or she gives a confession to the police officer, such confession is made inadmissible by Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act. The person making such a confession is not an accused at the point of making the confession. The partial relaxation provided by Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act applies only to facts discovered after receiving the confession, but the court was of the view that the entire part of the confession is treated as one and the same. So, if a confession is inadmissible, then the entire portion is inadmissible. Section 25 doesn’t show any limitation on whether the person making a confession is accused or not, and it doesn’t provide weightage to whether an investigation was started or not. It also doesn’t matter to the court whether the confession was obtained by threat or force, any confession made to a police officer is hit by Section 25, irrespective of its nature and timeline. The confession part of the confessional FIR, though struck by Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, is made relevant under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, as the section deals with the subsequent conduct of the person after committing the crime, and any fact involving the subsequent conduct is considered relevant. But it cannot be proved against the person who made it  in a court of law without providing proper corroboratory discoveries.

Analysis of Aghnoo Nagesia v. State of Bihar (1966)

Civil-Litigation-Practice,-Procedure-and-Drafting_696X293-

This case is one of the landmark cases in analysing the importance and relevance of confession in a judicial trial. A confession arises out of guilt over a crime. This might occur as soon as the crime is committed or sometime later. The confession may be self-motivated or motivated by some other person. Before analysing the characteristics of confession, it is paramount to understand the concept of confession. A confession, as defined earlier, is a self-exculpatory or inculpatory statement given by the accused. Unlike other statements, which can be given by any person during any stage of the investigation or trial, a confession can be given by the accused to the officer involved or to the judicial magistrate. Confession is classified as a type of admission. 

From a psychological point of view, confession denotes the possession of conscience, though it comes after the occurrence of a crime. From a legal standpoint, confessing to a crime can possibly reduce the penal repercussions. It is not a guarantee, but a possibility. The Indian legal system has various auxiliary clauses with regard to confession. It is a wide arena with a vague interpretation. The admissibility of such confessions varies from one case to another. In the Indian Evidence Act, admissions are defined and elaborated under Sections 17-31. According to Indian law, the only acceptable mode of confession is the confession made before the judicial magistrate under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. But no confession can be taken as conclusive proof, rather, it is used only as an estoppel.

The mode of confession that is completely prohibited is confession to a police officer under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Also, when a confession is given to the investigating officer, Section 27 of the Act makes guidelines on how much information can be proved and also from whom such information can be received. The reason why confession to police officers is not allowed is that there is an opportunity of threat or offer made to the accused to confess to a crime. It is highlighted in Section 163 of the Criminal Procedure Code and Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act. It is also explicitly mentioned that, in no case, a signature is attested on a self-made confession under Section 162 of the CrPC. Even after obtaining a confession, the investigating officer has to go leaps and bounds to collect corroborating facts that follow up as evidence to frame the charges without using the information from the confession.

In this case, a person named Aghnoo Nageshia, due to a property dispute and a consecutive intermittent quarrel with her aunt Ratni, kills her and three others (daughter, son-in-law, and grandson). Following the murder, he hides their bodies at the respective murder sites. These murders were due to the emotional outrage and effects of the loss of property. After committing such heinous murders, the accused, Mr. Aghnoo, shared the crime he committed against his brother. Then, by evening, the accused reaches the nearby police station and confesses about the murder to the sub-inspector of Police. On receiving such information, the police officer recorded the statement and asked the accused to affix his thumb print. Consequently, along with the accused, the sub-inspector went to the murder site and found the bodies lying lynched. All the bodies were recovered along with the murder weapon based on the information obtained from the confession. The confession became an indispensable tool to obtain all recoveries related to the crime.

The police filed an FIR, conducted a preliminary enquiry based on that information, and found the blood-stained sheets used to cover the dead bodies. Furthermore, by means of a medical examination, police linked the blood type of the victim to the blood on the murder weapon. The police obtained a statement from a witness who saw the accused leaving for the forest, where the murder occurred and where the dead body of the son-in-law of Ratni was found. The eye witness was added as a prosecution witness. After linking and corroborating all facts discovered to the confession statement, the police took up the trial. The accused was given a death sentence by both the Sessions Court and the Honourable High Court of Patna. At this hour, as a last resort, the accused, with the assistance of his pleader, K.K. Jain, went to the Honourable Supreme Court.

The Court came to the conclusion that no confession to a police officer is admissible as evidence, and no part of it can be used to prove other relevant facts. The court acquitted the accused of all charges and cleared off his death penalty. 

Hypothesis behind the confession

Any judgement is arrived at after introspecting all legal possibilities as well as laying consideration on the moral perspectives as well. This is to ensure that all normatives are met with precision and also to ensure that there is a broader humanitive aspect underlying them. The legal and moral perspectives of the judgement in this case are discussed below.

Legal background

The Constitution of India guarantees every citizen of India that no person shall be compelled to be a witness against himself under Article 20(3). This right is guaranteed to every citizen, keeping in mind that he should not be strangled with pressure to accept a crime that he or she is not a part of. This view is also supported by various precedents from the Supreme Court. In the case of Kathi Kalgu Oghad v. State of Bombay, (1961), the court held that no violation of Article 20(3) is allowed by means of signature, thumb impression, or any form of authentication. Also, in the case of Nandini Satpathy v. Dani, (1978), the constitutional validity of Article 20(3) is held. These case laws ensure that confession to a crime should not be obtained forcefully, and that is why confession to police officers is prohibited under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

Section 164 of the CrPC mandates that confessions are to be given in the presence of the Judicial Magistrate either within or out of his or her jurisdiction. This is a directive to ensure that the confession is not a tainted version. It is the obligation of the magistrate to ensure that the person making such a confession is informed beforehand that he or she can be prosecuted based on the information in the confession. While in the course of making such a confession, if the person denies making it, then he shall be immediately released from custody. This prevents the police from acting in a rude manner, for denying a confession. Sub clauses 6 of this section also commands that the magistrate recording such a confession should forward the confession obtained to the respective magistrate observing the case concerned. After the amendment made in 2009, it is also mandatory to video record the confession to ensure its veracity. The makers of the law are of the opinion that there is always a possibility of coercion to confession when police officers are involved, that is why both Section 163 of the CrPC and Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act prohibits such confession. Interestingly, Section 28 of the Indian Evidence Act allows the court to accept the confession if it is sure that the confession obtained is not influenced. 

In the case of State (N.C.T. of Delhi) v. Navjot Sidhu (2005), the court recorded that Section 164 of CrPc and Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act are major statutory tools to prevent unnatural confession. This is to avoid any threat, offer, influence, or panic that may be caused by the investigating officer to the person accused and obtain his or her confession.

In the case of Bharat v. State of U.P, (1972), the court held that a confession is admissible only when the court thinks the confession is genuine and can be used to prove the crime. This reiterates the concept of Section 28 of the Indian Evidence Act. All this fiasco occurs on account of the lack of a proper definition of the word “confession” in legal statutes. Also, it is noted that when a confession to a police officer is considered to be tainted, then it is considered as a whole. There are no bits and parcels of grey areas in such a confessional statement.

Moral background

Every judgement comes with a moral interpretation and will always add to the previous opinion of a statute. Confession is a more psychological concept than a legal one. A person who has committed a crime voluntarily comes forward to accept his wrong-doings. Though this revelation comes late, there is a possibility of retribution for such offenders. But when the crime committed is heinous, there is no second thought that the punishment should be deterrent and not reformative, even though a confession is made. However, the problem here is not a mere confession, but a confession made to a police officer.

Let us, for a moment, think about what would happen if a confession to a police officer was allowed to be presented as evidence. There is a possibility that an innocent person might be incriminated by his own words. There are numerous instances where police, through the use of force, incriminate people, usually those who are more influenced by criminal backgrounds or who are politically weak. When this ban on confessional statements is lifted, it paves for the grave danger of innocent people being locked up in prison, or, in the worst case, they might be hanged for the crime they have never committed.

Justice should always focus on protecting the innocent rather than punishing the offender. This principle is cardinal to almost all jurisprudence concepts. When a non-offender is incriminated for a crime, then he or she is not only being punished but also deprived of the opportunities that he or she may acquire if he or she is not sentenced. This is similar to a double jeopardy, or “Nemo Debet bis Vexari”. The legal system can find no means to retaliate for such a wrong punishment. Hence, the jurists pay keen attention to the evidential value of any fact. No fact or document is accepted at a single glance. When such importance is given to every evidence, accepting a possibly tainted confession is highly impossible. Allowing a confession with a high chance of coercion is likely not to happen, and that is why a check is provided for confessions to police officers. 

There also comes a question that, what if the real offender uses the loophole in the legal system to escape from damnation? In the case that is being discussed in this article, there is a high probability that the murders were committed by one Mr. Aghnoo Nagesia, yet the Honourable Supreme Court acquitted him just because the primary evidence was the confession given by him to a police officer. This might sound like an injustice. But while viewing it from a broader perspective, there are two possibilities . Firstly, the legal system has the laws inscribed not in a singular view. The laws that are present now have gone through multiple amendments, and the reason they are still prevalent is that they ensure justice, even in trivial ways. The reason for the ban on such confessions being used as evidence is to prevent any unnatural threat to  innocent people. The Court is also of the view that police officers, to speed up the process of investigation, at times resort to inducement of a threat or offer to the so-called accused. That is why there is an explicit ban.

Secondly, in this case, what if the murders were committed by the brother of the accused and the elder brother accepted the crime to prevent his brother from being imprisoned? This is a long possibility. That is why any crime is investigated in depth and extensive arguments are received before arriving at a conclusion and delivering a judgement. This case might be a false positive in the confusion matrix, but to prevent many false negatives, one or two false positives have to be accepted.

Conclusion 

This is an extensive case in which the legality of confession is being discussed meticulously. The intricate details of the case, including the provisions, precedents, arguments, and judgement are intensively studied. The inference from this case analysis is that a confession, however effective it may be, can only be proved if it is given before a judicial magistrate and any confession made to a police officer in any instance is inadmissible. Though there can be a mechanism in the Indian legal system by which confessions are judicially viewed based on their merits to determine their admissibility.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

What is a confession?

A confession is a type of admission which  is a self-exculpatory or inculpatory statement made by any person who has committed a crime. This confession is accepted only when it is made to a judicial magistrate. There is no definition for confession in the Indian Evidence Act or in the Criminal Procedure Code. There are various types of confession, including formal confession, informal confession, retracted confession, judicial confession, and extra judicial confession.

What is an admission?

Admission is an acceptance of a particular fact which can be used as evidence to prove a crime. Admission may be made by a person involved in a crime or not. Admission can be made in both civil and criminal cases. Sections 17-31 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the topic of admission, its acceptance, and the prohibitions proposed. There are two types of admission: oral admission and written admission. Though admission is treated as evidence, it is not taken as conclusive proof.

What is the difference between a confession and an admission?

Admission is a statement made by any person during the trial, whereas confession is a statement made by the accused to incriminate himself. Admission is usually civil in nature, but confession is criminal in nature. All admissions are used as evidence, but only certain types of confessions are treated as evidence. Confession is a type of admission, rather, admission is adherence to a material fact.

What is an extra-judicial confession?

An extra-judicial confession is a confession that is not given to a magistrate but to some other person outside the court, related to the crime. This may be given to relatives, neighbours or friends who can be added as witness to the case. But it is important that those statements from witnesses be proved without any reason for doubt. Extra-judicial confession is not defined under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

What are the elements of a valid confession?

  • A confession should be voluntary in nature.
  • It should not be obtained by means of force, threat, offer, or coercion.
  • It should be inculpatory in nature and not exculpatory.
  • It should match the circumstantial and local evidence.
  • It should only be made before a judicial magistrate and should be properly recorded and sent to the concerned magistrate.
  • A confession to a police officer is considered inadmissible.
  • A confession should receive the satisfaction of the court that it is not tainted.

What is the evidentiary value of a confession?

A confession is considered as evidence only when it is made voluntary in nature and is acceptable by the court of law. The question of whether to accept a confession is at the discretion of the court. The court checks if the confession has no taint or misappropriation in it. Whether it is made before a judicial magistrate or not. Whether it contains supporting relevant facts or not. Though confession is accepted as evidence, it would not become conclusive evidence to penalise a person.

What is a retracted or retraced confession?

It is a type of confession which was given by the accused after the commission of the crime to the investigating officer or the judicial magistrate but later, during the trial, withdraws it. Even though the confession is withdrawn, the evidentiary value of the confession is not lost. Based on the case of Pyarelal Bhargava v. State of Rajasthan (1962), a retraced confession can be accepted as evidence if the court feels satisfied with the genuineness of the confession.

What is a confessional FIR?

It is a type of FIR which is filed on the basis of the confession provided by a person who committed a crime and voluntarily appears before the police officer to accept his guilt. Usually, a confessional FIR does not have much evidential value unless it is backed by proper evidence and witnesses. It is also to be noted that, since the person confesses as soon as the commission of a crime occurs, he is possibly not under the custody of the police officer. The investigating officer should be vigilant to record such a confession with a proper eye witness or before a magistrate to increase its evidential value. A confessional FIR usually consists of three parts: admission, confession and discovery. Here, both the admission and discovery parts can be proved against the accused.

Can the confession of an accused be used against a co-accused?

Yes, a confession by one accused can be used against another accused. Under Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, an admissible confession made by one accused can be used against another co-accused. It is to be noted that there are a few essential factors, the accused are jointly tried, they should be tried for the same offence, and the confession should affect all accused involved. In the case of Pratap reddy v. State (2019), the Madras High Court held that to accept the confession of a co-accused, it should not be extra judicial and the facts should be proved without doubt.

References


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How to prepare for your judiciary viva voce or personal interview

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This article is written by Zehra Jamal. The article talks about the preparation strategy for the viva voce or personal interviews for the judicial services examinations. The article tries to cover various trips and tricks, major do’s and don’ts, and other useful strategies for a candidate aspiring to sit in the viva voce or the personal interview of a judicial services exam. The article covers the strategy for all the states that have a personal interview or viva voce stage in their judicial services exam. 

Table of Contents

Introduction 

In India, the judicial services examinations are conducted by various states to fill the vacancy of higher judiciary and lower judiciary in their respective states. The preparation strategy, eligibility criteria, etc. are different for both – higher judiciary and lower judiciary. In this article, we will be dealing with the judicial services examination of the lower judiciary only. 

In India, the state judicial services examinations are conducted each year by nearly 24 states. They are conducted for the recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in a state. The judicial services examination is an esteemed examination of the country and only candidates with a graduation degree in law are eligible to attempt it (provided the candidates fulfil other criteria like age limits etc of appearing for the examinations). For every state, the eligibility criteria, the syllabus, the difficulty level, etc. of a judicial services examination differs however, for almost every state, the exam is divided into three stages.  – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Some states also have a physical fitness test or computer test, which a candidate has to clear after qualifying other stages of the examination. 

The preliminary stage of the examination is usually objective and is qualifying in nature. On the other hand, the mains examination is usually subjective and the marks obtained by the candidate in the mains examination is added to the final merit list. A candidate has to clear the preliminary and mains examination in order to be eligible for the viva voce or the personal interview stage. The viva voce of each state differs in weightage and qualifying marks. In this article, we will try to guide the candidates in their preparation strategy for the viva voce of the judicial services examination. The importance of local language is also emphasized, apart from the weightage of the state specific viva voce stage. 

Importance of viva voce / personal interview stage

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, holds a very significant place in the final results of a candidate. It decides the selection or rejection of a candidate in the overall judicial services examination. In India, there are currently twenty four states that conduct the judicial services examination for the recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in their respective states. In all these twenty-four states, the interview process is of immense importance. Although the weightage of the marks of the viva voce or personal interview stage differs from state to state, it is mandatory for all candidates who successfully clear the judicial service examination to go through the interview stage. 

To understand how these viva voce or personal interview stages of these state judicial services examinations are conducted, let us first try to understand the results of the mains examination of the concerned state judicial service examination. We can broadly classify the candidates who clear the state judicial services examination into three categories, which can be described as follows: 

  1. Candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the highest marks (i.e., those who are at the top of the list of selected candidates)
  2. Candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the median marks (i.e., those who are in the middle of the list of the selected candidates)
  3. Candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the lowest marks (i.e., those who are at the bottom of the list of the selected candidates)

For all the above three kinds of candidates, the importance of the marks of the viva voce or the personal interview stage differs. Also, every state has its own level of minimum marks to be obtained in the viva voce or the personal interview stage to qualify for the final merit list of the concerned judicial service examination. Let us now understand the importance of the marks of the viva voce or the personal interview stage for the three above mentioned kinds of candidates:

  • For the candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the highest marks (i.e., those who are at the top of the list of the selected candidates) – for such types of candidates, it is easier to qualify for the final merit list because they have already excelled in the mains examination of the concerned state judicial services examination and are at the top of the merit list. For them, if they even score average marks, they will be on the safer side. However, it is mandatory for them to obtain the minimum level of marks required in the interview stage of the concerned state judicial services examination.
  • For the candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the median marks (i.e., those who are in the middle of the list of the selected candidates) – for such types of candidates, it is easier to qualify for the final merit list of the concerned state judicial services examination. Since they have scored median marks and are in the middle of the list, therefore have to score above average marks (on a higher side, to be more precise) to qualify for the final merit list of the concerned state judicial services examination.
  • Candidates who qualify the mains stage of the concerned state judicial services examination with the lowest marks (i.e., those who are at the bottom of the list of the selected candidates) – for such candidates, it is most difficult to qualify for the final merit list of the concerned state judicial services examination. They have to score very high marks in the viva voce or personal interview stage to compensate for their lower proportion of marks in the mains examination of the concerned state judicial services examination, and only then will they be able to qualify for the final merit list of the concerned state judicial services examination.

Thus, we can now understand the importance of the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the judicial services examination. Now, we will have a look at some of the common yet important points to be followed by any candidate who is preparing for the viva voce or the personal interview stage of any state’s judicial services examination. 

Common points for preparation of interview of any state’s judicial services examinations 

These are some of the most common pointers that are essential for almost all of the state’s judicial services examination interview stage:

  1. Dress smartly and neatly – It is well said that the first impression is the last impression. How a candidate dresses speaks a lot about their personality and the interview panel is also impressed by the same. It also portrays the efforts a candidate has put into being ready for the viva voce or personal interview and thereby shows the seriousness of the candidate towards the personal interview. So, it is advised for all the candidates going to give the viva voce or personal interview for any state judicial services examination to dress up in a neat and tidy manner. Men can specifically opt for suits or maybe trousers – shirts with ties. Women can, however, opt for light colour suits, pantsuits or even a formal saree. 
  2. Prepare your introduction – this will usually be the first thing asked by a candidate when they enter the room where the panel of interviewers are sitting. So, prepare a good introduction about yourself and practice until you are fluent and perfect in it. Candidates are advised to seek the help of mentors, mock interviews or other resources available while preparing their introduction. Remember, it is the first question asked, and if the beginning is good, it leads the way forward for you. 
  3. Improve your communication and comprehension skills – both of them go hand in hand, and improving them is very important because no matter how well versed you are with your thoughts or how well prepared you are for the viva voce or personal interview, it would all go in vain if you are not able to communicate them all. Also, if you are not able to comprehend what the interviewer is asking from you, all your preparation will be in vain because you will not be able to answer it. Thus, improving your communication and comprehension skills also plays a very important role in your preparation for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the judicial services examination. 
  4. Choose a language you are fluent in – in order to communicate your thoughts really well, the candidates are advised to choose a language in which they are fluent, because unlike the common notion that English is necessary for clearing such exams, any language, more specifically the local language of the concerned state, will also work. In these exams, proficiency in English is required for basic literacy level only, and it is not mandatory that the candidate be fluent enough to carry out all the tasks in the English language only. 
  5. Improve your body language – the way you enter the room where the interview panel is sitting tells a lot about your personality. You should focus on your body language and try to improve it. The body language of a candidate can be measured mainly with the following three attributes – the posture, eye contact and hands. While a body posture reflects your confidence, a strong eye contact with the interviewers meanwhile tells about the honesty of a candidate while answering, and finally, the hands of a candidate reflect their clarity while presenting a solution before the panel of interviewers. Overall, your body language must be confident and assertive. 
  6. Be well versed with your educational and/or employment details and background – sometimes the candidates are asked many questions related to their employment or even their educational background. So, a candidate must be very well versed in these details.
  7. Be updated with relevant current affairs – the interviewers on the panel also check the general awareness of a candidate; they can ask you about recent developments of national importance, including important legal developments. Your views can also be asked about a recent important event, and thus, the candidates are required to remain updated with the relevant current affairs.
  8. Develop a strong legal viewpoint – only enhancing your legal knowledge is not sufficient for the viva voce or personal interview because whenever you are supposed to answer any legal questions, you have to be very precise and apt. Not only do you have to put forth your answer in short words, but you also have to summarise it with a viewpoint of your own. It makes a good impression on the interviewer.
  9. Take a pause before you answer – whenever you are asked a question by the interviewers, pause for a very brief moment and comprehend the question in your mind. After comprehending, formulate the answer and its structure in your mind, and then start speaking. In this way, you will be able to communicate your answer in a better and more effective way.
  10. Be honest and apologise for not knowing an answer – never try to bluff the interview panel. It will leave a very negative impression on them. Instead, if you do not know the answer to a question, just be honest and apologise to them. The interviewers do not expect you to know the answers to all the questions. This will not have a negative impact as compared to bluffing.   
  11. Practice mock interviews – mock interviews are always a good option since they give you a real time experience of the actual viva voce or the personal interview, and thus  the candidate is advised to attempt a few mock interviews and try to understand what is expected of him by the interviewers. Not only to attempt but a candidate should also analyse their mock interviews and connect with the mentors to improve them.

State-specific pointers for viva voice/ personal interview of the judicial services examinations 

Now we will try to cover some state-specific points with respect to the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the concerned state’s judicial services examination. Currently, there are 24 states in India where judicial services examinations are held for the appointment of civil judges (junior division). We will cover each of these states alphabetically. 

Arunachal Pradesh

The Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination Grade III is conducted by the Gauhati High Court at Guwahati. Recently, the Gauhati High Court has called for applications for the same from interested candidates. The official notification is on the website of the Gauhati High Court, and the link to the same can be accessed here. Let us discuss the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain fifty percent or above marks or a grade in the mains paper of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is a total of seventy (70) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage. 

State-specific pointers for viva voce of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination 

As such, there are no state-specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination; however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should have a grasp over geography, history, art and culture, and other significant issues related to North East India – this is very important because Arunachal Pradesh is a north eastern state of India. This point is also important for other North Eastern states of the country. Candidates should be more aware of their past, present, etc. 

Importance of local language 

For the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, the candidate needs to have a grasp over the local languages of Arunachal Pradesh – Nyishi, Adi, Dafla, Gallomgg, Tangsa, Khamtui, Hill Miri, & Tagin. Though questions are not asked on the knowledge of local languages of the state in the preliminary and mains examination but sometimes the candidate may be asked something regarding the local language of the state by the interview panel. It gives a positive impact on the interviewers if the candidate is well versed in the local language of the state. 

Assam

The Assam Judicial Services Grade III Examination is also conducted by the Gauhati High Court at Guwahati. The exam is conducted in three stages of preliminary, mains and personal interview. The preliminary examination 2023 for the same has been held, and the results of the same are out. The Gauhati High Court will now conduct the mains examination for the Assam Judicial Services, followed by which the personal interview or viva voce will be conducted. Let us discuss the personal interview stage of the same.

Criminal litigation

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Assam Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent marks in the preliminary examination, which will then lead to the candidate’s eligibility to write the mains paper, and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain sixty percent or above aggregate marks or grade (at least forty five percent marks in papers 1 to 4 and at least thirty five percent marks in paper 5) in the mains paper of the Assam Judicial Services Examination. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Assam Judicial Services Examination is of a total of seventy (70) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Assam Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Assam

There are no specific pointers for the preparation of the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Assam Judicial Examination. However, the candidate should keep in mind the point stated for the preparation of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services examination because: 

  1. Assam is also a North Eastern state of India.
  2. The exam conducting body for Arunachal Pradesh and Assam is the same, which is the Gauhati High Court at Guwahati. 

Importance of local language

The candidates preparing to give the viva voce or the personal interview of the Assam Judicial Services Examination should have a strong foundation in Assamese. Questions based on the Assamese language have been asked in the preliminary paper of the Assam Judicial Services Examination. In the personal interview, the candidate can choose to answer in the Assamese language, which will lay a positive effect on the interview panel since a candidate who knows Assamese will be a better candidate for the post of civil judge in the state of Assam. 

Bihar

The Bihar Public Service Commission recently conducted the preliminary examination for the 32nd Bihar Judicial Services Exam, also known as the Bihar PCS J exams. The results of the exams have been published by the BPSC recently, and the timeline for the second stage of the paper, which is the mains paper of the Bihar Judicial Services Exam, has also been released. The mains examination of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination is expected to be held from 25th November 2023 to 29th November 2023. After the mains examination, the final stage of the Bihar Judicial Services examination will be viva voce or the personal interview stage. Let us discuss the same.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least forty five percent marks (forty in the case of reserved category candidates) in the preliminary examination, which will then determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least thirty five (35) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Bihar

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate should have basic proficiency in both – English and Hindi in order to make it to the final list of the Bihar Judicial Services Examination. The candidates can also choose to give their interview in any of the two languages they are fluent in. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any language. 

Chattisgarh

The Chattisgarh Public Service Commission conducted the preliminary examination of the Chattisgarh judicial services examination on September 3, 2023. The results of the same and the dates of the mains examination are awaited as of now. In order to qualify for the final merit list of the Chattisgarh judicial services examination, the candidate has to clear three stages of the exam – the preliminary stage, the mains stage and the personal interview, or viva voce stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage of the same.  

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to qualify the preliminary and the mains paper of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination. On a relative scale, the candidates who are more meritorious from among those candidates who appeared in the mains examination in the ratio of 1:3 with respect to the number of total vacancies shall be called for viva voce.

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifteen (15) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least thirty three (33) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage. For the candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of twenty five (25) percent marks is required. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Chattisgarh

There are no as such state specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination; however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should strive to achieve maximum marks in mains examination to be able to qualify for the final merit list after giving viva voce – this is very important because Chattisgarh judicial service’s viva voce stage is only of fifteen (15) marks, and therefore the candidates who have more marks in mains will have a high chance of making it to the final merit list. 

Importance of local language

The importance of the local language in the Chattisgarh judicial services examination is very similar to that of the state of Bihar. A candidate should have basic proficiency in both – English and Hindi in order to make it to the final list of the Chattisgarh Judicial Services Examination. The candidates can also choose to give their interview in any of the two languages they are fluent in. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any language. 

Delhi

The Delhi Judicial Services Examination is conducted by the High Court of Delhi in order to select qualified candidates and recruit them for the post of civil judge in the national capital of India. The Delhi judicial services examination is one of the toughest judicial services examinations to crack.

The Delhi Judicial Services Examination is divided into three stages – the preliminary stage, the mains stage, and the viva voce, or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks (fifty five (55) in the case of reserved category candidates) in the preliminary examination, which will then determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper. In the mains paper, the candidate has to score an aggregate of fifty (50) percent and a total of at least forty (40) percent in each of the four papers to qualify the mains paper. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred and fifty (150) marks. In order to prepare for the final merit of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination, the aggregate marks of the candidate in the mains examination and the personal interview stage will be taken into consideration. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Delhi

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination can prepare while keeping the following strategies in mind:

  • Give Delhi judicial services specific mock interviews – since this is one of the toughest judicial services examinations to crack, and there is a lot of competition as well, therefore, the candidates should try to prepare for it while attempting mocks specifically made on its pattern. 
  • Read the books suggested by experienced professionals – Joel. P. Trachtman’s book named The Tools of Argument: How the Best Lawyers Think, Argue & Win, The New Lawyer’s Handbook: 101 Things They Don’t Teach You in Law School by Karen Thalacker, and Richard Susskind’s Tomorrow’s Lawyer: An Introduction to Your Future are some of the most suggested books by experts to read while preparing for the viva voce of the Delhi judicial services examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate appearing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination should have a good power of expression in the English language in order to make it to the final list of the Delhi Judicial Services Examination. Though there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any language, the mains paper of the Delhi Judicial Services asks the same level of questions in the language (English) paper, and even the interview panel sometimes assesses the power of expression of the candidates in English. 

Goa

The Goa judicial services examination is conducted by the High Court of Bombay at Goa (permanent bench at Panaji). The notification for the examination is published on the official website of the Bombay High Court. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Goa judicial services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Goa Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to firstly clear the preliminary examination. The selection of the candidate in the preliminary examination is done on the basis of merit list. The total number of candidates which are selected for the mains examination are actually ten times the total vacancy released by the High Court of Bombay at Goa.  For example: If the High Court of Bombay at Goa released the notification for filling a total of Z (say 11) vacancies, then the total number of candidates who will qualify the preliminary examination will be ten times Z (say 11), which will be a total of 110. The candidates will be selected in ascending order of the merit list.

Then after qualifying the preliminary examination, the candidate will be eligible to write the mains paper. In the mains paper, the candidate has to score a total of fifty (50) percent marks to qualify the mains paper. For the candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of forty five (45) percent marks is required. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Goa Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifty (50) marks. In order to qualify for the final merit list of the Goa Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to score at least twenty (20) marks in the personal interview stage. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Goa 

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview of the Goa Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Goa Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate should have basic proficiency in any of the following languages – Konkani, Marathi, or English. The candidate has to write their mains examination in any of these languages only, and the interview panel may ask questions from the opted language. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any of these languages.

Haryana

The Haryana Judicial Services examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Haryana is conducted by the Haryana Public Service Commission. The dates of the examinations are not yet released and the notification for the examination is published on the official website of the Haryana Public Service Commission. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Haryana judicial services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination, which will then determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper, and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain at least fifty (50) percent of the total marks to qualify for the viva voce or the personal interview stage. For the candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of forty five (45) percent marks is required. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifty (50) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain an aggregate of at least fifty (50) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage and mains examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Haryana

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

The importance of the local language in the Haryana judicial services examination is very similar to that of the state of Bihar. A candidate should have basic proficiency in both – English and Hindi in order to make it to the final list of the Haryana Judicial Services Examination. The candidate should be versed in the Devanagari script. The candidates can also choose to give their interview in any of the two languages they are fluent in. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any language.  

Himachal Pradesh

The Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Himachal Pradesh is conducted by the Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission. The mains stage of the examination was conducted by the Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission from 18 September 2023 – 22 September 2023. The official notification with regard to the same can be found on the official website of the Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Himachal Pradesh judicial services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifty (150) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least forty five (45) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage of the Himachal Pradesh judicial services examination. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Himachal Pradesh 

There are no as such state-specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination; however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should focus more on history, art and culture, as well as current affairs related to Himachal Pradesh – this is very important because a lot of times, the interview panel has asked the candidate contemporary questions with respect to the state of Himachal Pradesh.

Importance of local language 

M&A

A candidate should have basic proficiency in both – English and Hindi in order to make it to the final list of the Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. The candidate should be well versed with Hindi (in Devanagari script). The candidates can also choose to give their interview in any of the two languages they are fluent in. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have professional level understanding of any language.

Jharkhand

Recently, the Jharkhand High Court issued the notice for the Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination, the application for which starts from 16 November 2023. The official notification can be found on the website of the Jharkhand High Court. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least twenty five (25) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage of the Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of twenty (20) percent marks are required

Specific do’s and don’ts for Jharkhand 

There are no as such state specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Jharkhand Judicial Services Examination; however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should strive to achieve maximum marks in mains examination to be able to qualify for the final merit list after giving viva voce – this is very important because the qualifying marks of the Jharkhand Judicial Service’s viva voce stage are only of twenty five (25) marks, so many candidates will qualify for the interview stage. But only those candidates who have more marks in mains will have a high chance of making it to the final merit list. 

Importance of local language

There is not much importance given to the local language in the Jharkhand judicial services examination. The candidate should have basic proficiency in English and Hindi, and they can choose any of them for the interview mode. 

Jammu and Kashmir

The Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is conducted by the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission. The mains stage of the examination will be conducted by the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission from 8 November 2023 – 10 November 2023. The official notification with regard to the same can be found on the official website of the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following four stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination, the viva voce or personal interview,  and the physical fitness stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to first clear the preliminary examination. Only twenty five times the total number of vacancy spots, or one third of the total applicant, whichever is less, will be considered as seats for the mains examination, and accordingly, the candidates will be selected for the mains examination based on the merit list. For example, – If the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission released the notification for filling a total of Z (say, 5) vacancies and a total of 500 candidates filled out the form of the same, then the total number of candidates who will qualify for the preliminary examination will either be twenty five times the total number of vacancies (which is 25 x 5 = 125) or one third of the total applicants (⅓ of 500 = 166), whichever is lesser – which is 125 in this case. 

After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination is of a total of one hundred and forty (140) marks. Those candidates who qualify for the merit list will next go through a physical fitness test. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Jammu and Kashmir 

There are no as such state-specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination, however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should focus more on history, art and culture, current affairs, recent amendments, etc. related to Jammu and Kashmir – the candidates should have a very good knowledge of their own territory and the latest news about it, as it is usually asked by interviewers. 

Importance of local language

There is not much importance given to the local language in the Jammu and Kashmir Judicial Services Examination. The candidate should have basic proficiency in English. Candidates need to convert English to Urdu and vice versa during the mains stage of the examination, but usually no such questions are asked in the interview stage. 

Karnataka

The Karnataka Judicial Services Examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Karnataka is conducted by the High Court of Karnataka in accordance with the Karnataka Judicial Service (Recruitment) Rules, 2004 and Amendment Rules, 2011, 2015, and 2016. They are published in the Karnataka Gazette. The official notification with regard to the examination can be found on the official website of the High Court of Karnataka. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Karnataka judicial services examination is conducted in the following four stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination, the viva voce or personal interview stage, and the computer test. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Karnataka Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to first clear the preliminary examination. Candidates who score above the cut – off list in the preliminary examination will be considered for mains examination. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Karnataka Judicial Services Examination is of a total of twenty five (25) marks. Those candidates who shall qualify for the merit list will next go through a computer test. However, the marks of the computer test will just be qualifying in nature, and its marks are not to be added to the final merit list.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Karnataka 

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Karnataka Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Karnataka Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

The Kannada language plays an important role in the Judicial Services Examination of Karnataka. It can not only be used as a medium for writing the mains examination of the Karnataka judicial services examination, but it can also be used during the interview stage as well. It has a positive impact on the interview panel when the candidate uses the local language of the state. 

Kerala

The Kerala Judicial Services Examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Kerala is conducted by the High Court of Kerala. The official notification of the Kerala Judicial Services Examination is published on the official website of the High Court of Kerala. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Kerala Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Kerala Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifty (50) marks. In order to qualify for the final merit list, a candidate has to score at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the viva voce or the personal interview stage. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of thirty five (35) percent marks is required. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Kerala 

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Kerala Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Kerala Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

In order to qualify for the final merit list, a candidate needs to have basic proficiency in Malayalam, as conversion questions are asked based on the same. The candidate can choose to answer the interview questions in Malayalam. However, there is no specific rule expecting candidates to have a professional level understanding of any language. But it has a positive impact on the interview panel if the candidate is well versed in the local language of the state. 

Madhya Pradesh

The Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Madhya Pradesh is conducted by the High Court of Madhya Pradesh. The official notification of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is published on the official website of the High Court of Madhya Pradesh. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to first clear the preliminary examination. Candidates who score above the cut – off list in the preliminary examination will be considered for mains examination. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is of a total of twenty fifty (50) marks. The final merit list will be based on the marks of the mains examination and the personal interview stage of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Madhya Pradesh 

There are no as such state-specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination; however, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should focus more on current affairs and the latest amendments related to Madhya Pradesh – the latest amendment in the eligibility criteria of the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination has sparked a hot debate, and therefore the candidates should be strongly prepared (with their own viewpoint) on it and should also be well versed in other recent legal developments in Madhya Pradesh. 

Importance of local language

There is not much importance given to the local language in the Madhya Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. The candidate should have basic proficiency in English and Hindi. Candidates need to convert English to Hindi and vice versa during the mains stage of the examination, but usually no such questions are asked in the interview stage.

Maharashtra

The Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination for recruitment of civil judges (junior division) in the state of Maharashtra is conducted by the High Court of Maharashtra. The dates of the mains examination of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examinations are yet to be announced. The official notification of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination will be published on the official website of the High Court of Maharashtra. The link to the same can be accessed here. The Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to first clear the preliminary examination. Candidates who score above the cut – off list in the preliminary examination will be considered for mains examination. After qualifying the mains paper, the candidate has to go through the personal interview process. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination is of a total of twenty fifty (50) marks. The candidates need to score above the minimum limit set by the exam conducting authority in the personal interview to be considered for the final merit list. The final merit list will be based on the marks of the mains examination and the personal interview stage of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Maharashtra

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Maharashtra Judicial Services Examination.  

Importance of local language

The candidates should have basic proficiency in the Marathi language. The official notification doesn’t ask for proficiency in any language for the personal interview stage, but a lot of importance is given to the Marathi language in Maharashtra, and it will have a very positive impact on the interview panel if the candidate is versed in it. 

Manipur

The Manipur Judicial Services Examination Grade III is conducted by the High Court of Manipur at Imphal. The official website of the High Court of Manipur at Imphal can be accessed here. The Manipur Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Manipur Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least fifty (50) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of forty five (45) percent marks are required. The total marks in the preliminary examination will determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain at least fifty (50) percent of the total marks. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of forty five (45) percent marks are required. After obtaining the requisite marks, the candidate will be eligible for the viva voce or the personal interview stage.  

The viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Manipur Judicial Services Examination is of a total of seventy (70) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Manipur Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Manipur

There are no as such state-specific pointers for the preparation of the interview stage of the Manipur Judicial Services Examination. However, the candidate should keep the following point in mind:

  • Candidates should have a grasp over geography, history, art and culture, and other significant issues related to North East India – this is very important because Manipur is a northeastern state of India. This point is also important for other northeastern states of the country. Candidates should be more aware of their past, present, etc. 

Importance of local language

Candidates should have knowledge of Manipuri, as it is the official language of the state. It is also desirable that the candidates have knowledge of other local languages in the state. 

Mizoram

The Mizoram Judicial Services Examination Grade III is conducted by the High Court of Gauhati, at Aizawl. The official website of the High Court of Manipur at Aizawl can be accessed here. The Mizoram judicial services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage. 

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Mizoram Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to clear the preliminary stage, and then the candidate has to obtain an aggregate of at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks (fifty (50) in the case of the reserved category) in the mains examination, with at least forty five (45) percent and forty (40) percent in each of the mains papers separately. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Mizoram Judicial Services Examination is of a total of fifty (50) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Mizoram Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Mizoram

There are no specific pointers for the preparation of the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Mizoram Judicial Services Examination. However, the candidate should keep in mind the point stated for the preparation of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services examination because: 

  1. Mizoram is also a North Eastern state of India.
  2. The exam conducting bodies of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram are the same, which is the Gauhati High Court (only the benches are different).  

Importance of local language

A candidate who is preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Mizoram Judicial Services Examination should have basic knowledge of Mizo language of at least Middle School standard (spoken, reading and writing skills).

Nagaland

The Nagaland Judicial Services Examination Grade III is conducted by the High Court of Gauhati, at Kohima. The official website of the High Court of Nagaland at Kohima can be accessed here. The Nagaland Judicial Services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Nagaland Judicial Services Examination is of a total of seventy (70) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Nagaland Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least sixty (60) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage of the Nagaland Judicial Services Examination. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Nagaland 

There are no specific pointers for the preparation of the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Nagaland Judicial Services Examination. However, the candidate should keep in mind the point stated for the preparation of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services examination because: 

  1. Nagaland is also a northeastern state of India.
  2. The exam conducting bodies of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland are the same, which is the Gauhati High Court (only the Benches are different). 

Importance of local language

Knowledge of local languages is not required for a candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Nagaland judicial services examination. The candidate should have a grasp of the English language, as the interview is conducted in English only. 

Odisha

The Odisha Public Service Commission recently conducted the mains examination of the Odisha Judicial Services Exam, also known as the Odisha PCS J exams, in the first week of September 2023. The notification regarding the same was published on the official website of the Odisha Public Service Commission. The link to the same can be accessed here. After the mains examination, the final stage of the Odisha Judicial Services examination will be viva voce, or the personal interview stage. Let us discuss the same.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Odisha Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of thirty five (35) percent marks is required. The marks in the preliminary examination will then determine the candidate’s eligibility to write the mains paper, and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain an aggregate of at least forty five (45) percent of the total marks (and a total of thirty three (33) percent in each of the mains papers) to qualify for the viva voce or the personal interview stage. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Odisha Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. In order to be eligible for the final merit of the Odisha Judicial Services Examination, the candidate has to obtain at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the personal interview stage. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Odisha

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Odisha Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Odisha Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Odisha judicial services examination should be fluent in speaking, reading and writing Odia, and they must also have passed an examination in Odia language equivalent to that of Middle English School standard.

Punjab

The Punjab Public Service Commission and the High Court of Punjab and Haryana recently conducted the personal interview, or viva voce stage, of the Punjab Judicial Services Exam in the first week of October 2023. The notification regarding the same was published on the official website of the Punjab Public Service Commission and the High Courts of Punjab and Haryana. The link to the same can be accessed here. Let us discuss the personal interview stage of the same.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Punjab Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least thirty (30) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of twenty (20) percent marks are required. This will then determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper, and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain at least thirty three (33) percent of the total marks to qualify for the viva voce or the personal interview stage. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Punjab Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. The final merit list for the Punjab Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the Punjab Judicial Services Examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Punjab

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Punjab Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Punjab Judicial Services Examination.

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Punjab judicial services examination should have knowledge of Punjabi up to matriculation or its equivalent level. 

Rajasthan

The Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination is conducted by the Rajasthan High Court. It has released the notification of the vacancy, but the dates have not been released yet. The link to the official website of the Rajasthan High Court is here. The Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least forty five (45) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of forty (40) percent marks are required. The marks in the preliminary stage will determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper, and then in the mains papers, the candidate should obtain at least forty (40) percent of the aggregate marks and at least thirty five (35) percent of the total marks in each law paper to qualify for the viva voce or the personal interview stage. 

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination is of a total of thirty five (35) marks. The final merit list for the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Rajasthan 

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination can prepare while keeping the following strategies in mind:

  • Have a solid grasp of geography of Rajasthan – since Rajasthan is a desert region and is a geographically important state of India, the candidates should have a solid grasp over the geography of the same, apart from the current affairs. Questions may be asked directly from the same. 

Importance of local language

There is no requirement of any local language for the candidates preparing for the viva voce of the Rajasthan Judicial Services Examination. Just basic proficiency in English and Hindi will suffice. 

Sikkim

The Sikkim Judicial Services Examination is conducted jointly by the Sikkim Public Service Commission and the High Court of Sikkim. The notification of the same was released by the Sikkim High Court. The link to the official website for the same can be accessed here. The Sikkim Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following two stages – the mains examination and the viva voce, or personal interview stage. A screening or preliminary stage might also be held if there are a very high number of candidates.  Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to clear the preliminary stage (if it is conducted due to the high number of applications received). After successfully clearing the preliminary stage, the candidate is eligible to write the mains examination. In order to qualify the mains examination, the candidate has to score at least forty (40) percent of the total marks and forty (40) percent of the aggregate marks in each paper. After scoring the same, a candidate is eligible to appear for the viva voce or personal interview of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination.

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. The final merit list for the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination. 

Specific do’s and don’ts for Sikkim

There are no specific pointers for the preparation of the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination. However, the candidate should keep in mind the point stated for the preparation of the Arunachal Pradesh Judicial Services examination, because Sikkim is also a North Eastern state of India and the preparation strategy will remain similar to other North Eastern states of India. Apart from this, the candidate should also keep in mind the following:

  • Candidates must have adequate knowledge of computer applications – in order to qualify the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examinations, the candidate should be well versed in the workings of computer applications. The knowledge of the candidates on the same is tested by the interview panel, and without proper knowledge of the same, the candidate might not be able to make it to the final list of the Sikkim Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Sikkim Judicial Services examination should have knowledge of Nepali or any other state language, and they must be able to communicate in it. 

Uttar Pradesh

The Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is conducted by the Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission. Recently, the results of the same have been declared. All the official communications related to the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examinations are done through the notifications released by the UPPCS through its official website. The link to the official website of the Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission can be accessed here. The Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

In order to qualify for the viva voce or interview stage of the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination, a candidate has to obtain at least forty (40) percent of the total marks in the preliminary examination. For candidates belonging to any reserved category, a total of thirty five (35) percent marks is required. The marks in the preliminary examination will determine the eligibility of the candidate to write the mains paper. After successfully clearing the mains cutoff, a candidate is eligible to appear for the viva voce or personal interview of the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination.

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. The final merit list for the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Uttar Pradesh 

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Uttar Pradesh Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Uttar Pradesh judicial services examination should have thorough knowledge of Hindi (Devanagari script) language. 

Uttarakhand 

The Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination is conducted by the Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. It has conducted the preliminary examination of the Uttarakhand Judicial Services, but the dates of the mains examinations have not been released yet. The link to the official website of the Uttarakhand Public Service Commission is here. The Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. In order to qualify for the final merit list, the candidate has to score a minimum of forty (40) marks in the viva voce or personal interview stage. The final merit list for the Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for Uttrakhand 

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the Uttarakhand Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the Uttarakhand judicial services examination should have thorough knowledge of Hindi (Devanagari script) language. 

West Bengal 

The West Bengal Judicial Services examination is conducted by the West Bengal Public Service Commission. The link to the official website of the West Bengal Public Service Commission is here. The West Bengal Judicial Services examination is conducted in the following three stages – the preliminary examination, the mains examination and the viva voce or personal interview stage. Let us discuss the preparation of the personal interview stage.

Weightage of interview marks

The viva voce, or personal interview stage, of the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination is of a total of hundred (100) marks. The final merit list for the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination is calculated by combining the marks of the mains exam and the personal interview stage of the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination.

Specific do’s and don’ts for West Bengal  

There are no such specific do’s and don’ts that a candidate has to keep in mind for the preparation of the personal interview for the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination. Candidates can follow the general tips given at the beginning of the article to prepare for the viva voce of the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination. 

Importance of local language

A candidate preparing for the viva voce or personal interview stage of the West Bengal Judicial Services Examination should have basic knowledge of Bengali. 

Conclusion

The overall preparation strategy for the viva voce or the personal interview stage of the judicial services examination remains similar, with a few extra tips for some states. Usually, a few points are common for all the states, and a few exceptions exist for some states. 

In all judicial services examinations, the viva voce or personal interview stage is a crucial part. Though the weightage of the interview marks differs for most states, there is a separate cutoff for the personal interview as well. In some states, the local languages also play a vital role during the viva voce or personal interview. However, the overall selection of a candidate depends on performing well in all the stages. 

For most states, qualifying the interview stage and making it to the final merit list of the exam guarantees the selection of candidates for the concerned state judicial services examination. However, for a few states, qualifying the computer test or physical fitness test is also required. 

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) on viva voce or personal interview stage  

How can candidates prepare the current affairs part for the viva voce or personal interview stage?

Candidates can prepare for the current affairs part by using two sources – follow any good newspaper and the monthly compendium or magazine of current affairs. It is advised not to take more than two sources because two good sources are sufficient for following current affairs and they cover the maximum portion. 

What kinds of questions can be expected in the viva voce or personal interview stage?

Candidates can be asked questions on their educational and professional background, their knowledge on current affairs and legal development, any other contemporary, etc.

How to improve your communication skills while preparing for a viva voce or personal interview stage?

To improve one’s communication skills, a person can read good books, improve their vocabulary and take help from experienced professionals. 

How to dress for a personal interview or viva voce stage?

One should dress formally for the personal interview. Males can wear suits or formal shirt pants, while females can wear light coloured sarees or suits. 

Is the weightage of personal interview or viva voce same for all the states?

No, the weightage of the viva voce or the personal interview is different for different states. 


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Divisible contracts : an insight

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This article has been written by Menaga Devi S.N. pursuing a Diploma in Advanced Contract Drafting, Negotiation and Dispute Resolution course from LawSikho.

This article has been edited and published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Introduction

The Indian Contract Act of 1872, defines the term “contract” under Section 2 (h) as “an agreement enforceable by law.” In other words, we can say that a contract is anything that is an agreement and enforceable by the law of the land. A contract is generally between two or more parties and follows the legal maxim “Quid pro quo,” which means an agreement between two or more parties in which there is a reciprocal exchange of goods or services.  For example, consider a business agreement where one exchanges something for something else of similar value. In other words, “favour for favour.” Even if a quid pro quo is considered legal, it may be perceived as unethical or shady in some cases.

Contract law governs the legal principle of the exchange of goods or services between individuals or businesses. It also examines contract principles such as enforceability, breach, voidability, performances, etc. It also provides remedies available to parties who suffer damages or harm from another party’s breach.

What is a divisible contract

A divisible contract is a contract in which the performances of each party are divided into matching pairs of duties. A divisible contract is one that has multiple parts or is divided into multiple segments. Each segment exists and can be completed independently. The performance of one segment doesn’t relieve the party from the obligations over other segments, and further, a breach of one segment doesn’t excuse the performance of the other segments by the parties.

Divisibility refers to the ability to separate a contract into distinct segments, parts or sections, each of which can be treated as an independent agreement. Not all contracts are divisible, and it depends on various factors, including the intent of the parties, the nature of the contract and the practicality of performance. For example, the construction of a building is undertaken by a contractor through a contract, which includes various phases of work such as plumbing, electrical work, flooring, ceiling, finishing, site planning, etc.

Essential requirements for a valid contract 

  1. There must be an offer and acceptance.
  2. According to Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act 1882, every person who enters into the contract must be competent, of sound mind, and major, i.e., over 18 years and above.

Case law

Mohori Bibee vs Dharmodas Ghose

Facts of the case

Dharmodas Ghose entered into an agreement with a moneylender to secure a loan amount of Rs 20,000 while he was a minor. At the time of the agreement, the person who acted on behalf of the moneylender had knowledge that Dharmodas Ghose was a minor. On attainment of majority, Dharmados brought an action against the defendant, alleging that when he executed the mortgage, he was a minor, therefore the mortgage itself is void ab initio.

Issues involved in the case

  • Whether the mortgaged deed is void under Sections 2, 10, and 11 of Indian Contract Act 1872 or not? 
  • Is the mortgage deed void or not?
  • Whether the mortgage deed comes under Sections 64 and 65 of Indian Contract Act 1872.

Judgement of the Court

The Court states that the agreement entered into between minors is void ab initio, i.e., void at the beginning. The person acting on behalf of the money lender knows the fact that Dharmados is a minor, conceals the fact and proceeds with the agreement willfully, so the application of the doctrine of estoppel is not valid.

  1. Under Section 23 of Indian Contract Act 1882, lawful consideration is essential for valid contracts, i.e., the consideration should be legal and should not be impossible to perform.
  2. Consent should be free, not given under undue influence, coercion, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
  3. There must be an intention to create a legal agreement and an intention to perform the contract.

Difference between divisible contracts and indivisible contracts

In a divisible contract, it is easy to separate, i.e., partial fulfilment is allowed and doesn’t affect the validity of the contract. But in an indivisible contract, it is undividable. When one cannot perform the object, the whole contract becomes void.

Examples:

  1. A agrees to pay $4000 to B in monthly instalments – Divisible contract

If A defaults on paying the second instalment, it doesn’t affect the validity of the contract.

  1. A agrees to pay B $2000 on December 23, 2023, the full amount for a purchase made by him- indivisible contract

If A defaults on paying that amount on the due date, the contract is void, and it is a breach of contract.

Case laws surrounding divisible contracts

Lowy vs. United Pacific Ins. Co (1967)

Facts of the case

In this case, the petitioner and respondent entered into a contract for area development, including paving the streets, installing barriers, and installing a sewer.

The defendant completed 98 percent of the contracted work, but a dispute arose concerning the payment of $7,200 for extension work. The plaintiff introduced changes to the original plan, leading to disagreements. Subsequently, the defendant ceased performance. In response, the plaintiff promptly engaged alternative contractors to complete the remaining 2 percent of the work. Despite successful completion, the plaintiff filed a breach of contract case against the respondent, alleging non-compliance with the agreement terms. The core issues involve payment disputes, alterations to the original plan, and the defendant’s cessation of performance.

Issues involved in the case

Whether the contract is divisible or not? Is the respondent eligible to claim the amount for the work completed by him?

Judgement of the Court

The Court said that the contract is divisible in nature. Because the petitioner gave a surety bond of $73,500 to the respondent for area development work, the respondent asked for another surety bond for the extension work before the second phase began, and the appellant refused to pay, so the respondent stopped the performance.

Further, the contract is divisible, and the respondent is entitled to claim the amount for the work done by him. Because the respondent breached the second phase of the contract, it does not make the whole contract  null and void.

Steele vs. Tardiani (1946)

Case related to breach of contract and quantum meruit, part performance.

Facts of the case

In this case, Tardiani and Steele entered into a contract to cut the firewood. Steele makes the condition that the wood must be 6 feet long and 6 inches in diameter. As per the requirement, Tardiani and other workers cut the wood. But the requirement of 6 inches in diameter was changed in mid of work and Tardiani and others cut the wood to 6 inches in diameter mistakenly.

Issues involved in the case

Whether Tardaini is entitled to the payment? Is there a breach of contract? 

Judgement of the Court

Yes, Tardiani is entitled to the payment even though there is a breach of contract

because when Steele received the woods, which varied in range, he didn’t notify Tardiani about the breach of contract and simply accepted the woods and sold them to his customers. It implies the express acceptance given by Steele in this case. Even though it is part performance, Tardiani and others are entitled to receive remuneration based on the Latin maxim Quantum Meruit – one deserves to receive pay as much as his work is done. This case highlights the importance of communication and quantum meruit.

Access Insurance Planner Inc. vs. Gee (2015)

Facts of the case

  1. In this case, Gee and Phillip Wardell, who runs Access Insurance planners, entered into an employment agreement where Gee would self generate business for access and Phillip Wardell would pay the commission to Gee.
  2. Philip Wardell agreed to pay 50 percent commission on the amount paid by an insurer to Access on health policies and 25 percent commission on property and casualty policies. Access agreed to pay initial and renewal policies commission to Gee.
  3. Gee started work in 2004. She became suspicious in the year 2007 when her commission in the year 2005 was unpaid. In the beginning of 2009, she communicated with Phillip Wardell through email about the payment discrepancies, but it didn’t lead to any final conclusions. Gee pleaded to correct that financial mistake by paying her commission but Wardell refused that there was no mistake and eventually, in 2010, he terminated Gee. 
  4. Access Insurance Planner Inc. stated that it is time barred according to the statute of limitations and that it is an indivisible contract so Gee has no rights because she just proceeded with the contract even though she became suspicious.

Issues involved in the case

  1. whether the issue is time barred under the statute of limitations or not?
  2. Is the employment agreement divisible or divisible in nature?
  3. Is Gee eligible for damages? 

Judgement of the Court

The Florida Supreme Court stated that it is a divisible contract because whenever Gee gets paid for insurance, it is a divisible one, i.e., able to separate because the parties agreed to pay commissions for each and every insurer that is introduced by Gee. 

Gee became suspicious in 2007 and she communicated about the issues to Phillip Wardell and she got terminated. In this issue, it is not a time barred issue because it is a divisible contract. The final judgement awarded damages only for the premium received by the defendant after January 11, 2007.

Darst vs. Meduna (1942)

In this case, the difference between a divisible and an indivisible contract is clearly explained by the Court. When the subject of the sale of a contract consists of different articles and the apportionment of the purchase price to each is made, then the contract is a divisible contract. The Supreme Court ruled in favour of Darst, holding that the state could not involuntarily commit a person to a mental institution and subject them to treatment without first providing them with a hearing. The Court also held that the state must prove that the person is mentally ill and that the treatment is necessary and in the patient’s best interests.

The Darst vs. Meduna decision was a major victory for the rights of mental patients. It established the principle that patients have a right to due process of law and that they cannot be subjected to involuntary treatment without their consent. The decision has also been cited as precedent in other cases involving the rights of people with disabilities.

The case had a significant impact on the way that mental health care is provided in the United States. In the wake of Darst vs. Meduna, states began to develop more stringent procedures for involuntary commitment and treatment. The decision also led to the development of new laws and regulations to protect the rights of mental patients.

Bariel vs. Tuinstra (1954)

Facts of the case

In this case, Tuinstra owns cows and runs a dairy farm. The animal health department inspected his farm and identified that some cows were infected by the disease and some were suspects so the inspection department ordered him to stop dairy farming and sell cows for slaughter. At that time, Bariel came to the defendant and said he would like to buy the livestock and lease the dairy farm. The defendant concealed the facts about the infections and sold the livestock to the appellant.  

Bariel and Tuinstra entered into a contract for the sale of real estate and personal property, i.e., cattle and farm machinery and equipment, in a single document. The contract says that the amount should be paid every month. The appellant sells milk and dairy farms, and the amount is paid to the defendant.

The inspection takes place on the dairy farm and identifies some infections in the cows. The Health Department restricts the sale of milk and cows during this time. Then the appellant went to the health department to check the health of the cows and he found that when he purchased the cows themselves, they were infected and the health department put restrictions on selling these cows, but the respondent willfully concealed the facts and sold the cows to the appellant.

The appellant communicated about this issue and asked to return the purchase amount of the cows, but the respondent refused to refund. The appellant filed a case against the respondent.

Issues involved in the case

The respondent says that the contract is an indivisible one so it is unable to rescind on part of it.

 Whether the contract is divisible or indivisible?

Judgement of the Court

 The Court said that the contract is divisible in nature even though the apportionment is a gross payment and entered in a single document, but the purchase of personal property, i.e., livestock, machinery and equipment, and the contract of lease are divisible. 

So, the appellant has the right to rescind the contract because, here, the respondent willfully concealed the fact of the infection of the cows.

Contract drafting checklist

S.NoConsiderationsClauseSignificance
1There is a likelihood of a fifth wave of the COVID pandemic and the parties intend to suspend the agreement if there is a nationwide lockdown. Force majeure clauseIt provides a legal mechanism to the parties to suspend the agreement under unforeseen circumstances.
2Woodpeckers is proposed to be appointed as the sole distributor to sell the furniture and other products of Norwood in the State of Kerala. Norwood has agreed to not appoint any other distributors in Kerala.Exclusivity clauseIt signifies that both the parties will be in an exclusive commercial relationship.Here, it grants woodpeckers the exclusive right to distribute and sell Norwood’s product in a specified region (Kerala), preventing Norwood from appointing any other distributor in that specified region.
3Any damages to be paid by either of the parties will be restricted to a maximum of twice the amount of consideration/payment involved for the specific consignment or order in dispute. Liquidated Damages / Limitation of Liabilitysignify the predetermined financial consequences agreed upon by the parties in case of a breach.
4The parties have agreed to use emails and couriers addressed to the official email ID and registered address of the respective parties for all correspondence under the agreement. NoticesIt signifies how and to whom the official  communication, legal notice, or notification related to the contract should be delivered.It ensures proper and effective communication between the parties involved.
5Norwood intends to reiterate its right in the agreement to compel Woodpecker to perform/undertake their part of the contract if there is no justifiable reason for such non-performance.Enforcement Clause / Remedies clauseIt provides the rights and actions that the parties can take in the event of a breach of contract, including the ability to compel performance or seek remedies for non-performance.
6Norwood will be sharing some secretive data and marketing strategies with Woodpecker and wants to limit its disclosure.Confidentiality ClauseIt is intended to restrict the disclosure of confidential information and proprietary strategies between the parties involved in the agreement.
7Woodpecker is apprehensive that Norwood may poach its sales experts and retailers in Kerala since Norwood is a more profitable and powerful company than Woodpecker. They want to protect themselves by introducing a specific clause in the agreement.Non-Compete & Non-SolicitIt is designed to prevent Norwood from hiring or enticing away Woodpecker’s sales experts and retailers in the specified region.
8There are other furniture companies planning to enter the retail market space in Kerala and Norwood does not want Exclusivity / Non- CompeteIt signifies that  Woodpecker is proposed to be appointed as the sole distributor and Norwood agrees not to appoint any other distributors in the specified region.
9Woodpecker will be using the logo, graphical representation and other packaging/branding material which bears the name of Norwood for advertising and sales of furniture and other products. Intellectual Property RightIt signifies in protecting Norwood’s brand identity and assets, ensuring exclusive use of its logo and branding material by Woodpecker for advertising and sales. It establishes the rights, limitations, and obligations related to intellectual property, preventing unauthorised use and potential harm to Norwood’s brand reputation.
10Woodpecker has conveyed to Norwood that they possess the required trade licence and other registrations under applicable state legislation which permits them to advertise and sell the furniture and other products in Kerala.Representations and Warranties ClauseIt is a contractual provision in which one party makes specific statements about the accuracy of certain facts, and the other party relies on those statements when entering into the agreement

Matching essential clauses of a contract with contract checklist

S.NoConsiderationsClauseSignificance
1Should any provision of this Agreement be determined to be void, invalid, unenforceable or illegal for whatever reason, such provision(s) shall be null and void; provided, however, that the remaining provisions of this Agreement shall be unaffected thereby and shall continue to be valid and enforceable.Severability clauseIt stipulates that if any provision of the contract is found to be invalid or unenforceable, the remaining provisions will still be valid and enforceable. This helps to ensure that the overall contract remains effective and operational, even if certain parts are deemed legally problematic
2Neither this Agreement nor any of the rights, interests or obligations hereunder shall be assigned by any of the parties hereto (whether by operation of law or otherwise) without the prior written consent of the other parties. Subject to the preceding sentence, this agreement will be binding upon, inure to the benefit of and be enforceable by the parties and their respective successors and assigns. Assignment clauseIt signifies the parties’ agreement on whether one party can transfer or assign its rights, obligations, or duties under the contract to another party
3This Agreement contains the entire agreement and understanding among the parties hereto with respect to the subject matter hereof, and supersedes all prior and contemporaneous agreements, understandings, inducements, and conditions, express or implied, oral or written, of any nature whatsoever with respect to the subject matter hereof. The express terms hereof control and supersede any course of performance and/or usage of the trade inconsistent with any of the terms hereofEntire agreement clauseIt signifies that the written contract contains the complete understanding and agreement between the parties, superseding any prior oral or written agreements, negotiations, or understandings. It helps prevent the parties from relying on extraneous materials or oral representations that are not explicitly included in the written contract.
4The Courts of Kerala have exclusive jurisdiction to settle any dispute arising out of or in connection with this Agreement (including a dispute relating to the existence, validity or termination of this Agreement or any non-contractual obligation arising out of or in connection with this Agreement) (a “Dispute”). JurisdictionIt helps determine the specific court that will have the authority to hear and decide legal matters related to the contract, providing clarity and avoiding potential jurisdictional conflicts.
5This Agreement may be amended or modified only by a written instrument signed by the duly authorised representatives of both parties.Amendment / variation clauseIt signifies the provision within a contract that outlines the procedures and conditions under which the parties can make changes or modifications to the terms and conditions of the agreement

Drafting clauses of the instrument

  1. The disclosing party is Kiran Beverages Limited is a well-established company located in Kolkata, West Bengal, exclusively engaged in the manufacturing and distribution of signature beverages known for their unique taste. Kiran Beverages Limited acts as a first party in this agreement.
  2. The First Party’s beverages (“product”) have gained widespread consumer acceptance, and the manufacturing process, considered “one of its kind,” is a closely guarded trade secret protected by necessary licences.
  3. The First Party, having selected exclusive manufacturers and distributors across India, operates its manufacturing units in full secrecy and confidentiality.
  4. The receiving party is Mr. Amit Roy, acting as a second party. A distributor based in Bengaluru, Karnataka, has successfully distributed and sold the product, establishing a commendable relationship with the first party.
  5. The parties acknowledged that during the course of discussion between them, the receiving party shall become privy to certain confidential information relating to the disclosing party, and the receiving party has agreed to be bound by the non-disclosure provisions of this agreement to govern the use and disclosure of the confidential information. 
  6. In consideration of the mutual promises and agreement between the parties hereto, the parties agreed to enter into this agreement to govern the terms and conditions of their association.

Confidentiality clause 

The confidentiality clause has to protect confidential information that is disclosed by the first party to the second party. Whenever the receiving party receives confidential information from the disclosing party, he is bound to protect the information from disclosure.

Here,

The first party is the disclosing party and the second party is the receiving party. The disclosing party may, from time to time, provide to the receiving party under or relating to this agreement all information communicated in writing or orally relating to business affairs, any technical data, or know-how, including but not limited to, that which is or relates to:

  1. Business Plan, secret Recipe to the Beverages, inventions, ideas, techniques, and data;
  2. non-public market information and product plans;
  3.  product plans, products, services, customers, markets, software, developments, inventions, processes, designs, drawings, engineering, and hardware configuration information.

Which pre-contractual instrument is beneficial for the client at this stage

A Memorandum of Understanding is beneficial for the client at this stage. Here, the first party and second party have a mutually beneficial relationship. The first party has received knowledge about the intention of the second party to expand its business through joint ventures or mergers. The first party needs some confidential information to enter into the joint venture, amalgamation, or merger and the MOU helps secure the confidential information, which has separate clauses to secure the information.

Can ‘confidentiality clause’ in such an instrument be enforced independently

Yes, even though a contract is terminated between the parties, confidentiality clauses will prevail to secure the rights of the second party and the first party is obliged to safeguard the confidential information that is shared by the second party.

After termination of the contract or MOU, if the first party discloses the confidential information that is shared by the second party, then the instrument is enforceable against the first party.

In the MOU, the duration of non disclosure of confidential information should be clearly mentioned and remedies should also be mentioned in case the first party violates the non disclosure clause.

Other clauses of the instrument

Proposed arrangement

The term “proposed arrangement” refers to a plan or agreement that is suggested, recommended, or put forward for consideration and encompasses the terms, conditions, and details that are currently under discussion and negotiation between the two parties.

The First Party has expressed its willingness to explore the possibility of a joint venture, amalgamation/merger, or another business arrangement with the Second Party. Based on that, the second party shares confidential information. Whether the parties enter into a MOU or NDA, both help secure confidential information.

Term and termination

The parties mentioned the effective date of the contract or agreement. When the second party shared his confidential information with the first party, the agreement was enforced and the first party was obliged to protect the confidential information. He should not disclose it to anyone without the previous approval of the second party. Even though the contract is terminated, the first party is bound to secure the confidential information. The mode of termination should be clearly mentioned in the agreement. Notice period and remedies in case of violation of provisions should be clearly mentioned in that agreement

Remedies

S.NoMaterial breachRemedies
1The distributor may fail to maintain the quality/ quantity of the products.The distributor has to pay compensation to the company.
2.The distributor may fail to deliver the products within the delivery time or delay delivery.
3.Distributor may fail to correct the material breach within the cure periodThe company may sue for damages or terminate the agreement as per this agreement.
4.Distributors may fail to share the accounts and sales records with the company.

Conclusion

Overall, the pivotal concept of divisibility in contract law is to ensure that each party is aware of their responsibility under the contract. It is important to understand and communicate the principles of divisibility to ensure that contracts are clear, concise and legally enforceable.

References

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Fast track arbitration

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In this article, Pallavi Tiwari discusses Fast Track Arbitration Proceedings. It is further updated by Sakshi Kuthari. This article deals with a detailed explanation of Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, its essential features and procedure.

This article has been published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Introduction 

Fast Track Arbitration was introduced in India by the Arbitration and Conciliation Amendment Act 2015. Just like the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was an improvement on the Arbitration Act of 1940, so is the Amendment of 2015. After 1996 there have been major changes to the kinds of business, manner of doing the business, overseas investment in India, etc. The legislative intent was to make the business environment simpler and expedite the process of arbitration for a quick and transparent dispute resolution system. Initially, the International Chambers of Commerce came up with this idea and has been using it in a number of cases, imbibing it in Article 30 and Annexure V of the Rules. In India, the concept of fast track arbitration is defined in Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 (for the sake of brevity hereinafter referred to as the ‘Amendment Act, 2015’. It is a procedure which allows the arbitration parties to enter into an agreement and agree in writing to resolve their disputes within a period of 6 months from the date the Arbitral Tribunal enters upon the reference and there is no provision for oral proceedings, instead written pleadings suffice the matter. 

Essential features of fast track arbitration

  1. It is majorly governed by strict time limit policies which have to be complied with by both the arbitrators and the parties. Basically, it means to accelerate the arbitral proceedings and resolve the matter by the shortest deadline possible.  
  2. If the time limit is not followed then the mandate of the arbitrator shall terminate, unless the court has extended the time period. If while extending the period the Court finds out that the delay has been caused without any substantial reasons, then there is a reduction of fees of the arbitrator by not exceeding five -per cent for each month of the delay. This punishment procedure has been mentioned under Section 15 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
  3. It does not provide a fixed set of elements or procedures to be followed as done in ordinary arbitral proceedings, mentioned in the following head,  any practice which helps in resolving the issue as soon as possible is accepted under fast track arbitration.
  4. Mostly in Fast Track Procedures for Arbitration, no oral proceedings are required and only written submissions are relied upon.
  5. The parties can appoint a sole arbitrator and the submissions majorly have to be written.
  6. It protects the cost, speed and time without infringing any law and sometimes procedures like the examination of a witness are also avoided.

How does fast track arbitration proceedings differ from normal arbitration proceedings

  1. The first difference is about the presence of three arbitrators in ordinary arbitral proceedings. Under Section 11(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 each party appoints one arbitrator, and then these two appointed arbitrators appoint the third arbitrator, who acts as a presiding arbitrator. Whereas, the fast track arbitration provides for a sole arbitrator appointed by the parties for the arbitration tribunal under Section 29B(2) of the Act.
  2. For an ordinary arbitral award, Section 29A(1) of the Act provides that the award shall be made within a period of twelve months from the date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference. If the award is made within a period of six months from the date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference, the arbitral tribunal shall be entitled to receive such amount of additional fees as the parties may agree. The time period can be exceeded but not more than six months. Under Section 29B(4) for fast track arbitration, the award under this section shall be made within a period of six months from the date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference. If the award is not passed within the specified period then the provisions of Section 29A shall apply here also, i.e. ordinary arbitral proceedings.
  3. In a fast-track proceeding under section 29B(6), the fees payable to the arbitrator and the manner of payment of the fees shall be such as may be agreed between the arbitrator and the parties. Whereas in ordinary proceedings according to Section 11(14),  the rules for the payment of costs to the arbitral tribunal, shall be determined by the High Court, as the rates are provided in the Fourth Schedule of the Act.
  4. For an ordinary arbitral proceeding, whether to hold an oral proceeding or have awards passed on the basis of documents shall be decided by the arbitral tribunal. Under Section 24 it is provided that an oral hearing can be allowed by the tribunal at a particular stage when the party requests it. Under section 29B for fast track procedures, written submissions are relied upon for proceedings and no oral proceeding is appreciated unless requested by the party.

Laws regulating fast track arbitration proceedings in India

In India, the concept of fast track arbitration came up with the recommendations of 246th Law Commission Report on 5th August 2014, which referred to a number of cases to provide the benefits of a speedy proceeding. Following this, came up the Amendment Act of 2015, where section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 with the addition of amendments, talked about the procedure involved for fast track arbitration. Section 29B talks about the procedure involved and the rules to be followed for fast track arbitration. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Board of Control for Cricket in India V. Kochi Cricket Private Limited(2018) held that the provisions of Section 29B of the said Act could only be made applicable to the arbitration proceedings commenced after the Amendment of 2015, i.e. 23rd October, 2015.

Further, the Indian Council for Arbitration Rules of Domestic Commercial Arbitration under Rule 44 discuss the fast track procedure where the Parties may opt for Fast Track Arbitration and request the arbitral tribunal, before the commencement of the arbitration proceedings, to decide the issue in a fixed time frame of 3 to 6 months. Here the arbitral tribunal can decide the issue only on the basis of written pleading without any oral hearing and can also call for clarifications. An oral hearing may be held if both parties make a joint request or if the Arbitration tribunal considers an oral hearing necessary in any particular case, and the tribunal shall hear it with all measures to proceed with it expeditiously.

When to apply for fast track arbitration

Under Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 people who are parties to an arbitration agreement can apply for fast-track arbitration in two ways :

  1. before the appointment of an arbitration tribunal by the parties,
  2. or at the time of the appointment of an arbitration tribunal by the parties.

This has to be submitted in writing by the parties that they want to be governed by the fast-track procedure.

      3. They shall also agree for the sole arbitrator to be chosen by them for the tribunal.

The cornerstone of fast track arbitration is giving the parties to the case the sole autonomy to decide for their arbitrators. This is done to prevent the parties from dilatory tactics, lack of caution and hindrances that may arise at the time of appointment of arbitrator and enforcement of award. 

Procedure for fast track arbitration proceedings

The parties shall agree with each other to solve the issue through fast-track procedure by the following rules as laid down under Section 29B of the Act of 2015 –

  1. The dispute shall be decided on the basis of written pleading, with the use of documents, and submissions provided by the parties and there shall be a sole arbitrator depending on the interest of the parties and relying on his skill and efficiency.
  2. There shall be no oral hearing.
  3. The tribunal can ask the parties for any other information or any kind of clarification to be provided to help in the matter of resolving the issue.
  4. There is a provision for an oral hearing if the parties request the tribunal or if the tribunal considers it necessary to resolve the issues.
  5. With the use of technical formalities, the tribunal shall resolve such issues and do whatsoever is required for a speedy disposal of the case.
  6. The award shall be given within six months from the date the tribunal starts taking notice of the case and if such award is not passed within the time prescribed then the procedure for extension of time provided under 29A is followed.
  7. If the award could not be given in the prescribed time period for fast track arbitration which is six months, an extension period of six months is provided. This extension period is provided under Section 29A of the Act as ordinarily provided for normal arbitral proceedings. The authority of the arbitrator shall terminate if before the lapsing of the six month time period the Court has not extended the period.
  8. If the proceedings have been delayed due to the error of the arbitral tribunal and thereby an extension is required the Court can order for the reduction of fees to be given to the arbitrator.
  9. While extending the period, the Court can substitute the arbitrator and is such a thing happens the proceedings shall continue from the stage it has already reached, and the arbitrator shall be deemed to have the knowledge of the evidence and material already presented.
  10. The fees to be paid to the arbitrator shall be fixed between the parties and the arbitrator.

Documents-only arbitration procedures

Arbitration proceedings allow the parties to the agreement to choose a procedure most suitable to their circumstances in order to achieve the quickest and most cost-effective resolution to their disputes. One such procedure is the ‘Document-only Arbitration’, which mostly applies to mid-to-low value disputes, such as domain-name disputes, intellectual property rights disputes, consumer disputes, etc. and also to large and complex arbitrations. Even though the arbitrators have the discretion to give directions relating to the procedure of a particular case, they may not have the authority to impose document-only arbitration procedures on the parties. It is because mostly the national laws of a country and their rules specifically provide that each party has a right to be heard unless the parties waive their right to be heard. If the arbitrators are of the opinion that a dispute could be resolved on the basis of documentation alone, rather than imposing it on the parties, it is advisable to invite the parties to agree to proceed on that basis. Thus, the document-only procedure connotes that the tribunals base their decisions solely on the written submissions and documentary evidence only and leave no opportunity to hear from the counsel or take evidence from witnesses at oral hearings.

The International Arbitration Practice Guidelines provide that the following steps should be followed by an arbitrator when considering whether to give directions for documents-only arbitration procedures.

  1. Arbitrators should proceed on the basis of taking into account all or some of the issues in the arbitration, subject to the applicable arbitration rules and the law of the place of arbitration.
  2. If a party to the arbitration requests for a document-only procedure, the arbitrators look into the issues involved, consult the other party and seek their consent before proceeding.
  3. During this procedure, the arbitrators direct the parties as to the steps involved to decide the issues involved, subject to that procedure on documents alone. 
  4. The just, fair and reasonable principles of equity should be followed by the arbitrators to give both parties an equal opportunity to present their case in relation to the issues involved, subject to the document-only procedure.
  5. The parties to the case have the discretion to choose the arbitration procedure until it is contrary to the mandatory laws and public policy. In the absence of the parties’ disagreement and the procedure not being inappropriate, the arbitrators are bound to respect the parties’ agreement. In this case, they have the discretion to organise the procedure they consider appropriate.
  6. In case the parties to the case agree to the arbitrator’s suggestion, the arbitrators record the parties’ agreement. If any party does not agree to the suggestion, they continue to proceed with the initial terms of the arbitration agreement. The arbitrators may opt to resign taking into account all surrounding circumstances of the case at any stage of the proceedings,  if the parties make them agree to unreasonable adjudicatory standards. The resignation of the arbitrators may raise their personal liability depending on the arbitration agreement involving their appointment and the law applicable in the place of arbitration.
  7. This procedure is effective for the speedy disposal of cases and for reducing the cost of arbitration procedures.
  8. The factors taken into account when determining whether some or all of the issues are suitable for resolution by a document-only procedure are the nature of the case, complexity of the issues, time and cost involved, nature of evidence and arguments adduced by the parties.
  9. For the purpose of deciding to adopt by document-only procedure, the arbitrators should give detailed directions to the parties which they need to take and by what dates. It enables the arbitrators to get the submissions and evidence (in the form of the draft) necessary to decide the issues by a specified date, subject to the document-only procedure.
  10. If the arbitrators are of the opinion that the document-only procedure is appropriate, they should include draft directions and seek the agreement of all parties. If the parties so agree, then the arbitrators record the agreement and the fact that the parties have waived their right to be heard in respect of some or all of the issues involved in the arbitration. The procedural order of the arbitrators should define the issues on which the parties have agreed to waive their right to be heard.
  11. If a party refuses to waive a right to be heard, the arbitrators focus in advance by means of procedural order on the scope of the hearing to identify the crucial issues to be addressed to save time and cost of the hearing.
  12. The arbitrators’ directions should deal with the matters of disclosure necessary, as to the scope and extent of documents to be produced, and the timing and manner in which they are to be produced at the time of the proceedings.
  13. If it has been agreed by the parties to the agreement that all or some of the issues would be conducted on the document-only procedure, it would be appropriate for the arbitrators to conduct an inspection of, for example, a site, a property, etc. They can give directions to this effect and indicate how it is to be organised, who is to be present and what will occur during the inspection.
  14. Subject to the mandatory rules and prevailing practice at the place of arbitration, it is the duty of the arbitrators to treat parties to the case equally and give them a reasonable opportunity to present their case, prepare their submissions and respond to the submissions made by the opposing parties.
  15. The submissions and evidence of the parties to the case are reviewed by the arbitrators to check the authenticity and enable them to decide the dispute or issues in the documents themselves. If the arbitrators are not satisfied with the submissions or the evidence submitted by the parties, they invite the party(s) to make further submissions and/or to submit further evidence in writing to address the specific issues within a reasonable time.
  16. If the parties had earlier agreed to waive off their right to be heard and during the document-only arbitration proceeding, one or more parties requests for hearing, the arbitrator should consider if there is a change in the nature of the issues in the disputes, the circumstances or the evidence that needs to be adduced that leads them to conclude that whether or not to have a hearing. If the arbitrators find the contentions of the party(s) to hear the proceeding reasonable, the arbitrators along with the consent of the other parties seek their agreement to the hearing.
  17. If none of the parties to the agreement have requested a hearing and consent only for the document-only procedure and the arbitrators find it necessary to have a hearing, the arbitrators should explain sufficient appropriate reasons to the parties and seek their agreement to the hearing. If the parties do not consent to it, the arbitrators shall continue to proceed on the basis of a document-only procedure as earlier agreed upon at the time of formation of the arbitration agreement.
  18. When the arbitrators draft an award relating to document-only procedure, they should record the parties’ agreement to that procedure and the procedural steps which were followed in order to avoid the risk of the award being challenged. 

Conclusion

Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was inserted by way of Section 15 of the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015. Sub-section (1) of Section 29B of the said Act provides that the parties to an arbitration agreement may resolve their dispute by fast-track procedure at any stage either before or at the time of appointment of the arbitral tribunal. Section 29B(2) of the said Act provides that without oral hearing the parties to the suit may resolve their disputes unless agreed to the contrary by the parties or the arbitral tribunal. The dispute needs to be resolved within a period of six months, i.e., the award should be granted from the date from which the tribunal enters upon the reference. Section 29B(4) provides for a “document-only arbitration procedure”. The loophole which this subsection holds is that it does not provide a monetary threshold which mandates the implementation of a fast-track procedure. With the passage of time, the Amendment of 2015 noticed the difficulties in the implementation of the said Act and Section 29B was amongst one of them. There was continuous interference of the court in the arbitration proceedings which contributed to the delay in disposing proceedings.

Even though Section 29B was inserted to facilitate speedy disposal of disputes, Section 29B (1) does not provide for opting for a fast-track procedure after pleadings are completed, i.e., after a claim, defence, counterclaim, or set-off. Paragraph 6(vii) of the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the 2015 Bill was introduced to provide parties to the dispute at any stage to resolve their dispute through fast track procedure. However, in the application, Section 29B is restricted only up to the stage of the constitution of the arbitral tribunal and not thereafter. Section 19(2) of the Act provides that while conducting the arbitral proceeding the parties to an arbitration agreement can determine and agree upon the procedure to be followed, failing which the arbitral tribunal can decide to conduct the proceedings as it may consider appropriate. On the contrary, considering the non-obstante clause of Section 29B(1), it would be appropriate to amend this provision to conclude that the parties to the arbitration agreement may “at any stage up to the completion of the pleadings and before the commencement of oral evidence” may conduct the arbitration by following a fast track procedure. 

There is a mandate under Section 23(3) of the Arbitration Act to complete the statement of claim and defence within six months from the date on which the arbitrator(s) receives a written notice of their appointment. Section 29B(4) can be amended to clarify that if after the completion of pleadings, the parties to the arbitration agree to a fast-track procedure, the award shall be passed three months from the date of completion of pleadings.

Frequently Asked Questions(FAQs)

What are the essentials of an Arbitration Agreement?

Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that the parties must –

  • agree to the agreement in the same sense, i.e., consensus-ad-idem;
  • the agreement must be in writing;
  • the agreement must refer to a present or future difference to arbitration.

What is the limitation for filing a claim before an arbitrator?

Section 11(6) of the Arbitration Act, 1996 provides for the appointment of an arbitrator which prescribes no time period for filing for an application.

Who cannot be appointed as an arbitrator?

According to Section 12(5) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 read along with the Seventh Schedule, any person who has a relationship with the parties or counsel or the subject matter of the dispute is ineligible to be appointed as an arbitrator.

When and how can an arbitral award be enforced?

Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that if the time of making an application has expired under Section 34 of the said Act, or the application having been made on time has been refused, then the award shall be enforced under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court.

When can an arbitral award be set aside by the court?

Section 34(2) (a) and (b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that the arbitral award can be set aside by the court, if the party proves any of the following –

  • Incapacity of the party;
  • Arbitration agreement is void, i.e., not in accordance with the law to which the parties to the agreement are subjected;
  • No proper notice of proceedings is given to any of the parties to the proceedings;
  • No proper notice of appointment of arbitrator is given to any party to the proceedings;
  • The award has been suspended or waived off by the competent authority in which it was made;
  • The issue cannot be resolved by arbitration under Indian law;
  • The composition of the arbitral tribunal is not in accordance with the agreement of the parties;
  • Enforcement of the award is against Indian public policy.

Section 13 of the said Act also provides that an arbitration award can be set aside when an arbitrator lacks independence or qualification or neutrality.

When can the jurisdiction of an arbitrator be challenged?

Section 12(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that when the question of independence or impartiality comes into question then the jurisdiction of an arbitrator can be challenged.

What procedure is followed by an arbitral tribunal to decide a case?

Section 18 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that the parties to the case shall be treated equally and should be given full opportunity to present the case. The arbitral tribunal is expected to observe the principles of natural justice and if they fail to do so the court may set aside the judgement. In this way, the tribunals perform their functions honestly and fairly.

References

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Viewing UCC through the lens of secularism

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This article has been written by Shaik Ashfaq pursuing a Diploma in International Contract Negotiation, Drafting and Enforcement course from LawSikho.

This article has been edited and published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Introduction

Almost every societal and civil conduct of the citizens of India is governed by the same laws except for matters related to marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption, succession, and guardianship. These family-related matters are specifically covered by the personal laws of each religious community, primarily based on their respective Holy Scriptures, cultures, and customs. Some provisions under these personal laws are accused of being discriminatory against women, against inter-community equality, and far from constitutional values. Due to the aforementioned reasons, time after time the Indian state has been called upon by legislatures, judiciary, and social organisations to implement Article 44 of the Constitution, which states that “The state shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.” The objective of this provision is to replace the existing personal laws of different communities with a common set of laws to regulate all their family matters. However, the article falls under Part IV of the Constitution, consisting of directive principles of state policy that are non-enforceable by nature.

It is often argued that in a secular country like India, there is no place for laws based on religion and a uniform civil code is a must to uphold the spirit of secularism. Under this backdrop, the following questions need to be contemplated whether Indian secularism, as it is reflected in the basic structure of the Constitution, demands the imposing of a uniform civil code or does it stand for expression of any form of difference and protection of such difference from an overpowering majority? Does the Indian concept of secularism entail strict separation between state and religion and mutual non-interference? Or is it about securing social justice through reasonable interference without threatening the fundamental right to practice religion and culture? 

Concept of secularism in India

The concept of Indian secularism is not a copy-paste of that which is practiced in Western countries nor is there any straightjacket definition that has been provided anywhere. The term secular was added to the preamble to the constitution through the Forty Second Amendment in 1976 but the essence or basic structure of the constitution has exhibited a secular nature since its adoption. According to scholars like Rajeev Bhargava, secularism in India takes the form of a “principled distance,” thus the non-establishment of any religion as a state religion and the policy of avoiding strict separation between religion and state as followed by the West. While Seval Yildirim has described “Indian secularism as a discourse to reconstruct the political space so that religion and the state can co-exist” Indian secularism is meant to be compatible with religion, and the state is authorised for reasonable interference by virtue of the constitution and for upholding its values. It assures the freedom of any form of difference and ensures that such differences remain unabsorbed under the louder voice of the majority. The Supreme Court in T.M.A. Pai Foundation and Ors. vs. State of Karnataka and Ors. has emphasised that “the essence of secularism in India is recognition and preservation of the different types of people, with diverse language and different beliefs, and placing them together so as to form a whole united India.”

Debate and developments surrounding UCC

Brief background 

Historically, during the Mughal period or under British India and hitherto under the Indian Democratic Republic, family related matters were governed as per the religious sources and customs of the concerned party, whereas criminal law has been applied uniformly to all communities. In Mughal India, ‘mitakshara’ and ‘dayabhaga’ schools were accepted and acted upon as veritable codes of Hindu personal law; for Muslims, sharia law was applied; and for other communities, flexibility as to following their customs was provided. In British India, the mainly Hindu community had seen interference in their customs and religious personal laws after social reformers belonging to the same community pressurised and urged British rulers to safeguard women from the then prevalent social evils; consequently, sati was abolished, the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act, the Caste Disabilities Abolition Act, etc. passed. Legislation concerning Muslim personal laws, such as the Shariah Application Act and the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, was passed. In Independent India, despite political controversies, the Hindu Code Bill has been passed in a piecemeal manner to reform Hindu personal laws and it has brought remarkable changes like the introduction of divorce, the prohibition of bigamy, and joint family property rights to Hindu women. For the Muslim community in Independent India Shah Bano case in the Independent India was significant and in Danial Latifi vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court questioned the constitutional validity of the Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 and upheld the judgement of Shah Bano case, which paved the way for the right to maintenance beyond the Iddat period for divorced Muslim women.

Since Independence, social organisations and the judiciary have been highlighting the unjust provisions in all personal laws and through the means of legislation and judiciary, specific practices have been dealt with effectively. The provisions under personal laws continue to be challenged in the courts and through meaningful discourse and diligence, amendments are introduced, unlike creating an atmosphere of fear among minority communities and vowing for forceful implementation of UCC merely for political gain.

Goa Civil Code

The Goa Civil Code, originally known as the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, is often preached as a potential example of the Uniform Civil Code by its proponents. However, a closer inspection of the code informs us about its own flaws. The marriage laws in the GCC are based on three-tier differentiation; for Catholics who marry under the church, for Catholics who marry outside the church and for non-Catholics. As per Article 1056 of the Code, marriage is regarded as of a contractual nature. Interestingly, for Catholics who marry under the church administration, their divorce related matters are adjudicated by Catholic priests, while Catholics who marry outside the church and non-Catholics are subjected to the jurisdiction of civil courts for the dissolution of their marriage. The Goa Civil Code is not a “uniform” code in the true sense of the term. It is a hybrid legal system that incorporates elements of both Portuguese civil law and Hindu personal law. This hybrid nature of the code has led to inconsistencies and ambiguities in its interpretation and application. For instance, the code contains provisions that are based on the Portuguese concept of community of property between spouses, as well as provisions that recognise the Hindu concept of separate property. This duality has created confusion and uncertainty among legal practitioners and litigants alike. 

The Goa Civil Code is outdated and in need of reform. It has not been substantially amended since its enactment in 1867, and many of its provisions are no longer in keeping with contemporary social and economic realities. For example, the code does not adequately address issues such as domestic violence, child custody, and surrogacy. This lack of modernity makes the code less effective in resolving disputes and protecting the rights of individuals.

The Goa Civil Code is not universally accepted or followed throughout India. It is only applicable in the state of Goa, which has a unique historical and cultural context. The code is not recognised in other states, which have their own civil laws based on local customs and traditions. This lack of uniformity across the country undermines the goal of having a truly “uniform” civil code.

The Code of Gentile Hindu usages and the Customs of Goa, 1880 applies to Hindus, under which Article 3 states that a Hindu husband can perpetrate bigamy in two scenarios; firstly, if his wife has attained the age of 25, during which she has failed to conceive a child and secondly, if the wife attains the age of 30 without having a male child. On the other side, Muslims are not governed under the Shariat Application Act but are subjected to a mixture of the code and parts of traditional Hindu laws. This shows a lack of uniformity in the bill and hints at its lack of secular nature.

Uniform Civil Code of Uttarakhand

The Uttarakhand assembly passed the Uniform Civil Code Bill on February 7; this is the first time in Independent India a UCC bill has been passed. Legal experts comment that the bill is merely an extension of Hindu personal laws to all communities in the state. The bill consists of only 14 new sections from an overall 375 sections and it remains silent on the Hindu undivided family’s exclusive privilege to enjoy certain benefits under the Income Tax Act. Ironically, tribal communities have been excluded from the purview of the UCC.

The progressive elements of Muslim personal law have been deliberately overlooked, and the provision of mehr to a wife by the husband is not extended to other communities nor has the one-third limit on testamentary succession to protect the interests of the heirs been incorporated. It appears that the UCC bill only attempts to obliterate the personal law practices of minority communities. 

The introduction of the UCC in Uttarakhand has sparked widespread discussion and debate, with legal experts and social commentators offering their perspectives. Some have lauded the bill as a progressive move that will promote gender equality and individual rights, while others have expressed concerns about the potential infringement of religious freedom and cultural identity.

Central to the UCC debate is the question of whether a uniform set of civil laws can effectively accommodate the diverse personal laws and customs of different religious communities in India. Critics argue that the UCC may erode the distinct identities and traditions of various religious groups, leading to a homogenization of legal practices. Advocates of the UCC, on the other hand, maintain that it is necessary to ensure equal treatment under the law and to eliminate discriminatory practices based on religion.

The Uttarakhand UCC Bill is a comprehensive piece of legislation that covers a wide range of personal matters, including marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption. It seeks to replace the existing personal laws of different religious communities with a common set of civil laws that will apply to all citizens of the state. The bill has been drafted with the stated objective of promoting gender equality, protecting the rights of women and children, and ensuring equal access to justice for all.

However, legal experts have pointed out that the Uttarakhand UCC Bill is largely based on Hindu personal laws, which raises concerns about the potential marginalisation of other religious communities. They argue that a truly uniform civil code should be drafted after extensive consultation with all stakeholders, including religious leaders, legal experts, and representatives of different communities, to ensure that the rights and sensibilities of all citizens are respected.

The passage of the UCC Bill in Uttarakhand is a significant development in the ongoing debate over the implementation of a uniform civil code in India. While the bill has been welcomed by some as a step toward achieving legal equality and religious neutrality, it has also raised concerns about the potential impact on religious freedom and cultural diversity. As the debate continues, it is crucial for policymakers to engage in a comprehensive and inclusive process to ensure that any future UCC legislation is just, equitable, and respectful of the rights of all citizens.

UCC and national integration

The proponents of the UCC postulate that having a Uniform Civil Code will result in national integration. Religious personal laws are the direct by-product of different cultures of which language and ethnicity are integral parts and whose sole basis the boundary lines of some states were drawn. Not to forget the tribalism and customs so prevalent in northeastern states, which led to the authorization of some districts, such as Garo Hills, Naga Hills and others, as autonomous regions by virtue of the 6th schedule of the Constitution, which means their district councils have legislative competence to administer civil and criminal justice as per their customary law. Opponents of the UCC, however, argue that such a code would infringe on the religious freedom of minorities. They believe that individuals should be free to follow their own religious laws in matters of personal status, such as marriage, divorce, and inheritance. They also argue that a UCC could lead to the erosion of cultural diversity. The debate over the UCC has been going on for decades. There have been several attempts to enact a UCC, but none have been successful. The issue is complex and there are strong arguments on both sides. Ultimately, the decision of whether or not to adopt a UCC is a matter of political will.

When people’s identity is informed by their cultural differences and customary practices, then what sort of national integration is assumed by bringing UCC that blatantly encroaches upon their identity? According to Paras Diwan, the UCC has nothing to do with national integration and writes, “Today in our country, we have one family code for the followers of four religions, viz., Hinduism, Jainism, Sikhism and Buddhism. Yet it has not led to a spurt of inter-religious marriages among the followers of these four religions. Rather, inter–religious marriages continue to be as few as they were before the adoption of one code for them. It is also evident that it has not helped in the integration, either on the national or regional level, of the followers of these four religions.” Thus, the assumption of national integration as a corollary of having UCC lacks consideration of India’s rich and diverse cultural practices. In addition to the religious and cultural arguments, there are also economic arguments for and against a UCC. Proponents of a UCC argue that it would create a more efficient and predictable legal system, which would be beneficial for businesses. Opponents argue that a UCC would increase the cost of doing business, particularly for small businesses. The economic arguments for and against a UCC are complex and there is no easy answer. However, it is clear that the issue of a UCC is not just a religious or cultural one. It is also an economic issue with real-world consequences for businesses and individuals alike. 

UCC and gender justice

The expression ‘Gender justice’ implies that men and women ought to enjoy equal rights and should not be discriminated against because of their gender differences. However, supporting reforms from within and a piecemeal approach through judicial recourse is far more relevant and meaningful to achieving the aim than imposing UCC. Proponents of gender justice argue that the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a crucial step towards achieving this goal in personal laws. The UCC aims to establish a common set of civil laws that apply equally to all citizens, regardless of their religion or personal beliefs. By doing so, it seeks to eliminate discriminatory provisions found in various personal laws that perpetuate gender inequality.

For example, in matters of marriage, divorce, inheritance, and child custody, many personal laws in India are based on religious tenets that often favour men over women. The UCC, on the other hand, would provide a uniform framework that ensures equal rights for both men and women in these personal matters.

Additionally, the UCC would address issues such as polygamy, which is permitted under certain personal laws but violates the principle of gender equality. It would also establish a minimum age for marriage, protecting young girls from being forced into early marriages.

The implementation of the UCC would have a transformative impact on gender justice in India. It would create a level playing field for men and women, enabling them to exercise their rights and freedoms equally. Moreover, it would contribute to a more inclusive and just society where all individuals are treated with dignity and respect, regardless of their gender. However, the enactment of the UCC faces certain challenges. There is resistance from certain religious communities who fear that the UCC will undermine their cultural and religious practices. Political considerations and the need to build consensus among various stakeholders also complicate the process. Despite these challenges, the pursuit of gender justice through the UCC remains a vital goal. It is essential for India to move towards a more equitable and just society, where all citizens, irrespective of their gender, have equal rights and opportunities. For instance, there are two landmark judgements in Muslim personal law first being Danial Latifi vs. Union of India, in which the apex court upheld the Shah Bano case to extend the right of maintenance to divorced Muslim women beyond the iddat period and the second being the Shayara Bano case, in which the Supreme Court banned the practice of triple talaq. The gradual changes within Christian family law are also a shining example. Most importantly, the 21st Law Commission not only said the UCC is “neither necessary nor desirable” but also supported ending gender discrimination and removing inequality: “This Commission has therefore dealt with discriminatory laws rather than providing a uniform civil code, which is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage. Most countries are now moving towards recognition of difference, and the mere existence of difference does not imply discrimination but is indicative of a robust democracy.” The commission also suggests that religious identity is also important to women, and personal laws along with language, culture, etc. often constitute a part of this identity and as an expression of ‘freedom of religion’. Flavia Agnes, a prominent lawyer and women’s rights activist, while opposing the ‘one nation, one law’ slogan, said, “The cardinal question was to choose between imposing uniformity and ensuring gender justice and if the goal is to achieve gender justice, then the need of the hour is to go back to the 21st Law commission report and see where changes can happen.” 

Conclusion

India is a diverse country and the plurality of laws is a logical corollary of that fact. The Goa civil code and UCC of Uttarakhand are classical examples of how minorities in these codes are subjected to the personal laws of other communities in the name of uniformity and gender justice, while the uniformity of laws is not mandatory to achieve the goal of gender justice. Indian secularism advocates for the preservation of difference and addressing social justice rather than the plurality of laws. Thus, as the 21st Law Commission remarkably stated, “thus a ‘united’ nation need not necessarily have ‘uniformity’;’ it is making diversity reconcile with certain universal and indisputable arguments on human rights.”

References

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Section 448 IPC punishment  

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This article has been written by Yashfeen Khan. This article explains house trespass, the essentials of house trespass, its punishment, and its aggravated forms under various circumstances. It further elaborates on the concept of criminal trespass, different types of criminal trespass, its punishment, and important judgements defining what constitutes house trespass.

This article has been published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Table of Contents

Introduction

Suppose you are playing a cricket match on your street road and the ball hits the window of your neighbour, and the window is now broken. What will happen now? Does this amount to trespass?

Everyone has the right to enjoy their property freely without the interference of any other person. And also, we know that where there is a right, there is a remedy, either in the form of statute or duty, imposed upon another person. The remedy for this right is provided in the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

If any of your acts interfere with another’s peaceful enjoyment of property, either movable or immovable, such acts amount to trespass. If trespass is committed without criminal intention, it is dealt with under the law of torts. But if trespass is committed with the criminal intention to cause harm to anyone, then it is criminal trespass.

What is trespass

According to Black’s Law Dictionary, trespass means injury or misfeasance caused to a person, property, or rights of another person with force or violence. In the strictest sense, an entry on another’s ground is caused without lawful authority by damaging his real property, i.e., land or immovable property. Interfering with another’s land without his permission or without having a right to do so would result in trespass.

Trespass can be committed without actual entry into the property. Interference can be made with another’s property without actually entering into it. Suppose a person A throws a stone at B’s house without actually entering the house, but with the intention to annoy A. This would result in committing trespass.

The offence of trespass cannot be committed if the person alleged of trespass has a right or authority to enter on such property. Trespass can only be committed if the person entering does not have the right or authority to enter a property. Also, the person complaining about trespass should also have actual possession of such property.

Trespass is both a civil and criminal wrong

Trespass means an unapproved entry into the property possessed by someone else. Trespass is both a civil and criminal wrong, depending on the intention and magnitude of the loss that occurred. If an intruder unlawfully enters the property and causes damage, then it is regarded as civil wrong under tort, and tortious liability arises, but if he enters with the intention to commit an offence, then it is regarded as a crime, and criminal liability arises. 

Damages are payable if tortious liability arises, whereas in cases of criminal liability, he shall be held liable under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (hereinafter referred to as the IPC).

Criminal trespass

According to Section 441 of the IPC, criminal trespass is committed if the accused unlawfully enters or, if lawfully entered, remains there unlawfully intending to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult, or annoy any person in possession of such property. It is not necessary that the annoyance resulting from trespass be instantaneous; it may be subsequent.  

Intimidate, in this definition, means to threaten someone; annoy means to irritate; and insult means treating someone disrespectfully. Anyone entering the house to threaten, irritate, or commit any act that brings disrespect to the person having possession of the house is committing criminal trespass and will be held liable for such an act.

Essentials of criminal trespass

To constitute trespass as criminal trespass, the following essential conditions must be fulfilled:

Unauthorised entry

In order to constitute an offence under this section, there must be an actual unlawful entry upon the property possessed by someone else. If ‘A’ throws the trash at B’s house regularly, ‘A’ may be held liable for committing nuisance but not trespass, as ‘A’ did not enter the house. 

Entry is unlawful when it is made for an unlawful purpose. So, if ‘X’ enters Y’s house to harass ‘Y’ or any other person in Y’s house, he is said to have committed criminal trespass.  

Entry must be with the intention to commit an offence or to intimidate, annoy, or insult any person.

Intention is the main ingredient that constitutes a trespass as a criminal trespass. The intention behind committing criminal trespass can be assessed by examining the purpose behind such trespass. If there was no intention to annoy, intimidate, or insult anyone in possession, the offence of criminal trespass cannot be established. 

Property must be possessed by someone else

In order to constitute criminal trespass, there must be a property, either movable or immovable, upon which the intruder enters unlawfully, if he enters lawfully and remains there unlawfully. 

In Mathuri v. State of Punjab (1963), the Supreme Court held that in order to constitute an offence under house trespass, it is not sufficient merely that the intruder knows the natural consequence of his entry into the property; he must have the intention to commit an offence or to insult, intimidate, or annoy the person having possession.

Further, in Trilochan Singh v. The Director, Small Industries Service (1962), Madras High Court held that if writing love letters by a boy to a girl and delivering the same to her residence annoys an innocent girl, such a boy is held guilty of the offence of criminal trespass under Section 441 of the IPC. 

Punishment for criminal trespass 

Punishment for criminal trespass is provided under Section 447 of the IPC. A person who commits criminal trespass shall be punished with imprisonment for three months, or with a fine which may extend to five hundred rupees, or both. 

Different types of criminal trespass

Trespass can be classified as follows, depending on the magnitude and consequence of such trespass.

House trespass

According to Section 442 of the IPC, if any person commits criminal trespass by entering into any building, tent, or vessel used for residential purposes, a place of worship, or as a place to store things, they will be held liable for committing the house trespass.  

House trespass is an aggravated form of criminal trespass. House trespass is said to be committed if any person enters the house of another person having possession of the house while also threatening or intimidating to physically harm the occupant if they attempt to prevent the entry.

Lurking house trespass

According to Section 443 of the IPC, if anyone commits house trespass by taking the necessary precautions to keep that trespass hidden from the owner of such property and if the owner has the authority to expel the trespasser out of that building, a tent or vessel is said to have committed lurking house trespass. For a trespass to constitute a lurking house trespass, the trespass must be a house trespass, and the intruder must have taken measures to conceal such a trespass.

Punishment for lurking house trespass

Punishment for lurking house trespass is provided under Section 453 of the IPC. If any person is found guilty of committing housebreaking or lurking house-trespass, they shall be punished with imprisonment of two years and also with a fine.

Lurking house trespass by night

According to Section 444 of the IPC, if any person commits lurking house trespass between sunset and sunrise, they shall be held liable under this section. Lurking house trespass is an aggravated form of house trespass.

In Prem Bahadur Rai v. State of Sikkim (1977), the complainant and his wife were returning from the market during the night in the dark. They were followed by two unknown people up to their house. The earring of the wife of the complainant was robbed by some unknown person, who immediately ran away. Later, police arrested the accused and charged the accused with lurking house-trespass by night to commit theft under Section 457 of the IPC.

The Sikkim High Court in this case held that for a criminal trespass to constitute lurking house trespass, there must be an active concealment of his presence. His presence concealed by the darkness of night cannot justify the claim that the accused concealed his presence, which does not amount to lurking house trespass under Section 444. Due to the absence of reliable witnesses and evidence that can prove that the accused committed robbery, no charge could be proved. The court acquitted the accused. 

Punishment for lurking house trespass

Punishment for lurking house trespass or house breaking is defined under Section 456 of the IPC. Anyone committing lurking house trespass or housebreaking by night shall be punished with imprisonment of three years and also be liable with a fine.

Housebreaking

According to Section 445 of the IPC, any person who commits house trespass and enters into or leaves the house by affecting the entrance of the house or any part of the house in any of the following six ways, and if he stays in the house or in any part of the house for committing an offence, is said to commit housebreaking.

  • If the passage is made by the intruder or by any abettor to the house. For example, if any person makes a hole in the wall of the house to commit house trespass. 
  • If the intruder enters through any passage made by himself or abettor of the offence, not used as a human entrance like scaling or climbing over any wall or building. 
  • If the intruder uses a passage he opened or any abettor of the trespass has opened, that is not usually used by anyone. If a house has a door which is not used by any person and an intruder enters through such a door.
  • If the intruder enters the house by breaking any lock.
  • If the intruder uses criminal force, i.e., assault, for either his entry or departure. 
  • If the intruder himself unfastens or any abettor of the trespass unfastens anything tied to the entrance. 

Punishment for housebreaking

Punishment for housebreaking has been provided under Section 453 of the IPC. Any person who commits housebreaking or lurking house trespass shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and also be liable for a fine.     

Housebreaking by night

According to Section 446 of the IPC, any person who commits housebreaking between sunset and sunrise is said to have committed housebreaking by night.

Punishment for housebreaking by night

Any person who commits housebreaking between sunset and sunrise shall be punished under Section 456 of the IPC. A person shall be punished with imprisonment for three years or shall be held liable for a fine.

Lurking house trespass and housebreaking also be committed under various circumstances defined under various sections as follows:

  • Under Section 454 of the IPC, if lurking house trespass or housebreaking is committed with the intention to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment, the intruder shall be punished with imprisonment for three years and shall also be liable to a fine, and if the offence intended to be committed was theft, then with imprisonment for ten years. 
  • Under Section 455 of the IPC, if lurking house trespass or housebreaking is committed with preparation for causing hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint, or with the intention to put the other person in the fear of hurt or wrongful restraint, the person shall be punished with imprisonment for ten years and shall also be held liable for a fine.
  • Under Section 457 of the IPC, if lurking house trespass or housebreaking is committed by night and with the intention to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment, the offender shall be punished with imprisonment for five years, and if the offence intended was theft, imprisonment for fourteen years, and also shall be held liable with a fine. For the offence to be dealt under this section, the lurking house trespass or house breaking must be committed with the intention to commit an offence.

In In Re: Pullabhotla Chinniah v. Unknown (1917), it was held that breaking open a cattle shed that is used for agricultural purposes amounts to house breaking. 

In Nasiruddin v. State of Assam (1971), the accused broke open the front door of the house of a woman to abduct her, assaulted her husband, and attacked her son with deadly weapons. The accused was charged with Section 457 of the IPC.

The Supreme Court, in this case, held that for trespass to fall under this Section, trespass must be house breaking or lurking house trespass by night, i.e., housebreaking or house trespass committed by taking measures to conceal his presence at night, and must have been committed with the intention to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment. The accused broke into the house to abduct the woman, and hence they were held liable under this section.

Under Section 458 of the IPC, if lurking house trespass or housebreaking is committed at night with the preparation of causing hurt, assault, or wrongfully restraining any person or for putting the fear of the same, the person shall be punished with imprisonment for fourteen years and shall also be liable to a fine. 

Under Section 459 of the IPC, if any person, while committing lurking house trespass or housebreaking, causes grievous hurt or death to any person, he shall be punished with imprisonment for life, and if an intruder attempts to cause death or grievous hurt to any person, he shall be punished with imprisonment for ten years and shall be liable for a fine. This offence under this section is an aggravated form of offence defined under Section 453.

Under Section 460 of the IPC, if persons jointly commit lurking house trespass by night or housebreaking by night and one of them voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death or grievous hurt to anyone, all of them would be jointly liable for such offence and shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment for ten years, and also with a fine.

Under this section, the joint liability of the intruder is dealt with. If, during the commission of lurking house trespass by night or housebreaking by night, one of them causes or attempts to cause death or grievous hurt, all of them shall be punished for such an act. 

Understanding house trespass

A house is one of the basic amenities; therefore, there is a strong need to protect it. House trespass is a particular type and an aggravated form of criminal trespass. Trespass will be considered as a house trespass if any person, with the intention of committing an offence or to intimidate, annoy, or insult the person having possession of the building used for residential purposes, as a place of worship, or to store things, unlawfully enters such building, or if he enters there lawfully, remains there unlawfully. The person entering must have the intention to annoy, intimidate, or insult anyone having possession of the building. And entry by the person must be illegal. Such a person shall be held liable for house trespass. The building is defined as a structure used to protect the persons residing in it or for the property placed therein for custody or any place of worship. 

House trespass is different from various other offences of trespass such as house breaking, lurking house trespass in the sense of magnitude. House trespass is committed if any person enters unlawfully into the building, but for housebreaking the person must have paved his way into or upon the house, and for lurking house trespass, the person must have concealed his presence in the house. House trespass further may be differentiated depending upon the intention to commit such trespass, whether such trespass was committed with the intention to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment, life imprisonment, or to cause hurt and assault. 

For an offence of house trespass, there must be a building that may be used as a house. Further, apart from permanent residence, many buildings can be used for dwelling; in this sense, buildings such as shops, schools, and railway waiting rooms could also be used as human dwellings.

Aggravated forms of house trespass

There are different forms of house trespass, which vary based on the intent of the trespasser. They include:

House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with death

If house trespass is committed with the intention to commit an offence punishable with death, such trespass is dealt with under Section 449 of the IPC. A person committing such trespass shall be punished with imprisonment for life or with rigorous imprisonment for ten years, and also with a fine. For a person to be held liable under this section, he must have committed house trespass, and the intention of committing trespass must be to commit an offence punishable with death.

House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life.

If any person commits house trespass with the intention to commit an offence punishable for imprisonment for life, such trespass is dealt with under Section 450 of the IPC. A person committing such trespass shall be punished with imprisonment for ten years and also with a fine. For a person to be held liable under this section, he must have committed house trespass, and the intention of committing such trespass must be to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life. 

House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment

If any person commits house trespass with the intention to commit an offence punishable for imprisonment, such trespass is dealt with under Section 451 of the IPC. A person committing such trespass shall be punished with imprisonment for two years and also with a fine, and if the offence intended was theft, then the imprisonment may extend up to seven years. For a person to be held liable under this section, he must have committed house trespass, and the intention of committing such trespass must be an offence punishable with imprisonment. 

House-trespass after preparation for hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint

If any person commits house trespass with the preparation for causing hurt or assaulting any person, wrongfully restraining any person, or putting any person in the fear of hurt, assault and wrongful restraint shall be punished with imprisonment of seven years and shall be held liable with a fine. For a person to be held liable under this section, he must have committed house trespass, and the intention of committing such trespass must be to cause hurt, assault, or wrongful restraint.

Essentials of house trespass 

To constitute house trespass an offence liable under Section 448 IPC, the following essentials must be fulfilled:

Unlawful entry

In order to constitute the offence of house trespass, entry must be unlawful, or if lawful, the accused must be there unlawfully to insult, annoy, intimidate, or commit an offence. Trespass is the wrong against possession, not ownership. So the intruder must not have any explicit or implicit authority to enter the property. An actual unlawful entry needs to be there with the intention to commit an offence to constitute the entry as trespass. For example, if person A has locked a house in their possession and person B adds another lock to the premises without A’s consent, B would not be considered guilty of house trespass.

Possession

Possession is the essential element for the offence of house trespass. In order to commit the offence of house trespass, the intruder must not have possession of such a building. If he has possession of the building he is entering, an offence cannot be established. House-trespass is an offence against possession. Thus, where the complainant is not in actual possession of the building, there can be no offence of house-trespass. Any person entering the house having ownership of the house but not possession may be accused of having committed house trespass if he enters the house with the intentions mentioned in Section 442 of the IPC. A house trespass will be constituted only when the accused enters a house, etc.

A building used as a human dwelling need not be a place of permanent residence. A school is a building, although it is not used for residential purposes but may be used as a human dwelling within the contemplation of Section 442. Likewise, a railway platform is a building within the range of a dwelling house.

Intention

Intention, i.e., mens rea, is one of the major ingredients of trespass to constitute it a criminal offence. The intruder must enter with the intention of committing an offence. A test for the intention of trespass can be done by determining what the aim of entry was.

It is not enough that the intruder knows his entry would cause annoyance; rather, he must have the intention to annoy for him to be liable for the offence of criminal trespass.

In the case of Kanwal Sood v. Nawal Kishore (1982), Aranaya Kutir, owned by R. C. Sood, made a gift deed in favour of Anandamayee Sangha, with the stipulation that during his lifetime, his premises would be possessed by him, and after his death, his widow, if alive, would have possession. He invited the widow of his brother to reside on the premises. After his death, the secretary threatened to vacate the premises; if she did not leave the premises, a case for criminal trespass would be filed against her. The Supreme Court in this case held that mere entry to the property did not constitute criminal trespass. There must be criminal intention for the same. A mere occupation, even if illegal, cannot amount to criminal trespass.

In the case,  In Re: Chander Narain v. Faquharson (1879), ‘A’ shot a deer present in B’s land. ‘A’ went to B’s land to kill the deer. The Calcutta High Court in this case did not hold ‘A’ guilty of the offence of trespass, as the intention to commit a crime or to annoy the possessor could not be found. 

Property

There must be property into or upon which entry may be possible, and that property may be used as a human dwelling, either for permanent residence, as a place of worship, or to store things. There must be a building that may be used as a place of human dwelling, either permanently or temporarily. But the term property does include incorporeal property, e.g., the right to the fishery.  

In Mangaraj Barik v. State of Orissa (1982), the Orissa High Court held that a school is a building used as a human dwelling within the scope of Section 442. Further, in the State of Punjab v. Nihal Singh (2013), the Supreme Court held that a railway platform is a building within the range of a dwelling house.

Section 448 IPC punishment

Section 448 of the IPC provides the punishment for the crime of house trespass. If any person commits house trespass, he or she shall be punished with imprisonment for one year and also with a fine of 1000 rupees. 

Trespass is cognizable, bailable, and compoundable at the discretion of the person having possession of the house. The offence of house trespass is triable by a Magistrate. Trespass being a cognizable, bailable, and compoundable offence, the police officers in charge can arrest the intruder without a warrant after receiving a complaint from the victim. The parties to the case can compromise for the same at the discretion of the possessor of the house if the case is on trial in court.  

Degree of punishment for crime under Section 448 IPC 

According to Section 448 of the IPC, whoever commits house-trespass shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with a fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.

Depending on the nature and kind of trespass, punishment for each kind also varies. Punishment for criminal trespass is imprisonment for three months or a fine of five hundred rupees. House trespass, which is an aggravated form of criminal trespass, increases the punishment to imprisonment for one year and a fine of one thousand rupees. 

It can be said that as the gravity of the offence rises, the punishment for the offence also increases. Hence, the degree of punishment for house trespass depends upon the intention of committing house trespass, the nature of such trespass, and the means through which such trespass is committed.

Important case laws surrounding Section 448 IPC punishment 

Further, the magnitude of the offence of house trespass increases as the offence is committed with the intention of committing an offence punishable by death; the punishment for such trespass rises to rigorous imprisonment of 10 years. If anyone commits house trespass with the intention to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life, the punishment for such a person shall be imprisonment for 10 years and a fine. If any person commits house trespass with the intention of committing an offence punishable by imprisonment, they shall be punished with imprisonment for 2 years. If any person commits house trespass after preparation of causing hurt, assault, or wrongfully restraining any person, he or she shall be punished with imprisonment for 7 years and also with a fine.

Vidyadharan v. State of Kerala (2003)

Facts

In this case, the accused entered the house and the kitchen and tried to hold the hands of a woman. The complainant, who was married and had children, was busy cooking food. The accused took hold of her hands and tried the act of molestation. The woman tried to escape him by running to the next room and closing the door of the room, but failed as the accused opened the door forcibly. The case was filed under sections 448 and 354 of the IPC, Section 3(1)(xi) of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.

The session court held the accused guilty and convicted them for the same. The session court held that the offence under Section 3(1)(xi) of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, is an aggravated form of an offence under Section 354 of the IPC; hence, no separate sentence was called for the latter offence. An appeal before the Kerala High Court was filed, but it did not bring any relief to the appellant. The High Court affirmed the conviction and the sentence.

An appeal was filed in the Supreme Court about the false implication of the case, and it was also submitted that the Session Court had no jurisdiction for the trial of the offence under Section 3(1)(xi) of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. 

Issues in the case

  • Whether the accused has committed house trespass or not?
  • Whether the charges framed against the accused in Section 3(1)(xi) under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, are valid?

Observation of the court

The Supreme Court in this case held that to attract Section 448 of the IPC, the accused must have trespassed with the intention to intimidate, insult, or annoy the complainant. There must be an unlawful entry, and any intention for a criminal trespass under Section 441 must be fulfilled.

An offence under Section 3(1)(xi) of the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,1989, is an aggravated form of an offence under Section 354 IPC. According to Section 14 of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,1989, the Court of Session can act as a Special Court with the prior permission of the Chief Justice of the High Court for speedy trial of offences under this Act. 

In the instant case, the Supreme Court concluded that, according to Section 193 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no Court of Session can take cognizance of an offence as a Court of original jurisdiction unless the case has been committed to it by the Magistrate.

Section 5 of the CrPC cannot aid as there is no provision in the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which states that a special court can take cognizance as a court of original jurisdiction. Hence, it is concluded by the Supreme Court that the session judge did not have jurisdiction to try the offences related to Section 3(1)(xi) of the Act.

Judgement

Hence, the punishment imposed on the accused under Section 3(1)(xi) was set aside, leading to the release of the accused by the Supreme Court. This decision was made because the punishment prescribed under Sections 354 and 448 of the IPC, which amounted to three months of imprisonment, had already been served by the accused.

Kripal Singh v. Wazir Singh (2000)

Facts

In this case, the complainant had a shop where he used to assist the accused with work. The complainant occasionally used to visit his daughters, who were employed in Madhya Pradesh, leaving the work in the care of these workmen.

One day he went to Madhya Pradesh to meet his daughters, entrusting the shop and necessary instruments and tools to these hired workmen. He discovered that some of his tools and his bicycle were missing. When he questioned the accused about these losses, he received improper and unsatisfactory explanations. Following his inquiries about the missing tools and subsequent threats from the accused, he returned to the shop on another occasion. However, the accused insulted him and vehemently denied any association with the shop, threatening him with violence if he did not vacate the premises. The trial court in the instant case held that the complainant had the actual ownership and possession of the property all along, and the accused were employed by him as servants. The property was allotted to him by the Rehabilitation Department as a displaced person from Pakistan. So the court held the accused guilty of the offence under Sections 448 and 34 of the IPC and convicted the accused for the same.

The Additional Session Judge upheld the judgement given by the trial court. And released the accused on probation. 

Issues in the case

  • whether house trespass was committed by the accused?

Observation of the court

The complainant, in his revision petition filed before the Delhi High Court, complained about the release of the accused on probation, which led to the harassment of the complainant by the accused for almost four decades. In the meantime, the complainant did not receive a penny as rent or compensation. Despite being the owner of the shop, the complainant was deprived of possession and use of the shop.

The Delhi High Court held that even if the accused entry to the shop was lawful but he remained in the shop unlawfully, an offence of house trespass under Section 442 is committed continuously.  

Judgement

The Delhi High Court upheld the judgement of conviction of the accused and release on probation of the accused, directed for the restoration of possession to the complainant, i.e., the real owner of the shop. 

Satrughana Nag v. State of Odisha (2020)

Facts

In this case, the accused broke into the house of the victim, who was sleeping in his house. The bamboo door of her room was open. Her elder brother and his wife were sleeping next to his room. The accused broke into the house at night and tried to disrobe her saree in an attempt to rape her. After hearing the screams of the victim, her brother and his wife came to the room and assaulted the accused. A FIR was lodged against the accused under Section 457 of the IPC, and he was tried for the same.

The Additional Session Court held the accused guilty of the offences charged against him under Sections 366, 511, and 457 of the IPC, sentencing him to 3 years of punishment and one month of punishment for the respective charges. This further proceeding is an appeal filed before the Orissa High Court.  

Issues in the case

  • Whether the accused committed an offence under sections 366 and 511 of the IPC?
  •  Whether the accused is liable under Section 457 of the IPC?

Observation of the court

The court found variations in the statements given by the victim during the investigation and in the courtroom. The appellant’s counsel argued that there are certain improbable circumstances that are supported by the evidence of the case; rather than being a victim of rape, the victim could also be the consenting one for the intercourse. Since the victim was not medically examined, due to the absence of evidence and reliable witnesses, the offence of committing rape could not be established. It was held that mere entering of the house at night does not amount to lurking house trespass if such trespass has not been concealed, and it also does not amount to housebreaking if an intruder has not untied anything that was fastened. 

Judgement

The court held the accused liable under Section 448 for house trespass and punished him with imprisonment, which had already been undergone by him.

Conclusion

The right to peaceful enjoyment of property is a legal right and needs to be safeguarded. If any person unlawfully or lawfully enters a place with the intention to commit a crime or to insult, annoy, or intimidate any person having possession of such property, he is said to have committed criminal trespass. Further, if such trespass is against a human dwelling or place of worship, it is classified as house trespass and is punishable under Section 448 IPC. Criminal trespass has many aggravated forms, depending on the time and place of such trespass. Depending on the gravity of trespass, different types are classified under Sections 441- 462 of the IPC, attracting the punishment accordingly.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Is house trespass bailable or non-bailable?

If a person is held guilty of an offence of trespass, he shall be subject to the punishment of imprisonment for one year and also with a fine. An offence of house trespass is a cognizable and bailable offence that could be tried by any magistrate and is also compoundable at the discretion of a person having possession of the property.

Is trespassing criminal or civil in India?

Trespass is unlawful interference with another’s peaceful enjoyment of property. Trespass is defined as a civil wrong under the law of tort, and damages are payable for any loss or injury suffered. Trespass, when committed with the intention to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult, or annoy any person having possession of the property trespassed upon, becomes criminal trespass and is dealt with under the Indian Penal Code. 

What is the difference between house trespass and housebreaking in IPC?

Criminal trespass is house trespass if an intruder with a criminal intention enters the property used for the protection of persons residing inside it, goods stored in it, or as a place of worship unlawfully, or if lawfully entered, remains there unlawfully. Housebreaking is an aggravated form of house trespass that is committed if the intruder breaks into the house or leaves by making an effect on the entrance or any part of the house. It is committed in the six ways mentioned in Section 445 of the IPC.

References   

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Legality of non-compete clause in employment contracts

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This article has been written by Yadav Mahima Kaushal pursuing a Diploma in US Contract Drafting and Paralegal Studies course from LawSikho.

This article has been edited and published by Shashwat Kaushik.

Introduction

In a world of competitive markets, every employer wants to protect their interests. A non-compete clause is a tool for protecting the legitimate interests of the employer.

A non-compete clause is a clause in an employment contract that puts restrictions on the action of an employee from working for a competitor or starting a similar business or profession as the employer, either in the course of employment or after employment. In the latter, enforceability depends on various factors.

Non-compete clause is inserted in an employment contract to protect the employer’s legitimate business interests, such as trade secrets , confidential information, customer data, goodwill and market strategies. However, a non-compete clause is not always enforceable in a court of law. The enforceability of a non-compete clause depends on various factors, such as:

  • The reasonableness of the scope, duration, and geographic area of the restriction;
  • The balance between the employer’s interest and the employee’s right to earn a living;
  • The public interest and policy considerations; and
  • The existence of a valid consideration or compensation for the restriction.

History of a non-compete clause

In 1414, while hearing Dyer’s case law, English Common Law rejected the enforcement of non-compete agreements because of their nature. As it put restraint  on the trade, the non enforceability was  continued until 1621. After that restriction that was limited to a specific geographic location was allowed as an exception, the exception became the rule with the 1711 watershed case of Mitchel v. Reynolds, which established the modern framework for the analysis of the enforceability of non-compete agreements.

Historical perspective in the Indian context.

A strict approach by Indian courts towards the non-compete clause has been seen in the past. In most of the cases, honourable judges have refused to acknowledge the legality of non-compete clauses by citing Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act and also Article 19(1) (g) of  the Indian  Constitution.

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act  1872 prohibits agreements that put  restrictions on  trade. Article 19(1)(g) gives every citizen of India freedom of trade and profession.

However, in the landmark case of Niranjan Shankar Golikar vs. The Century Spinning Company , the Court started acknowledging the non-compete clause by introducing the concept of ‘the rule of reasonableness’. The following factors need to be considered while applying this rule:

  • The duration of the restriction; 
  • The geographical scope;
  • The nature of the employee’s position;
  • The availability of alternative employment  opportunities.

What is a non-compete clause

A non-compete clause is a provision included in a contract between an employer and an employee that restricts the employee from engaging in certain activities after the termination of their employment. The purpose of a non-compete clause is to protect the employer’s legitimate business interests, such as confidential information, customer relationships, and trade secrets.

Key elements of a non-compete clause typically include:

  1. Scope of restrictions: The clause outlines the specific activities that the employee is prohibited from engaging in, such as working for a competitor, starting a competing business, or soliciting customers or employees of the former employer.
  2. Timeframe: The duration of the non-compete clause specifies the period during which the restrictions apply. It can range from a few months to several years.
  3. Geographic scope: The clause defines the geographic area where the restrictions are applicable. It can be limited to a specific city, region, or country.
  4. Reasonableness: Non-compete clauses must be reasonable in scope and duration to be legally enforceable. Courts will consider factors such as the employee’s position, the industry, and the potential harm to the employer to determine the reasonableness of the clause.

Pros and cons of a non-compete clause

Pros

The pros of the non-compete clause are:

  1. Protection of confidential information: Non-compete clauses help protect an employer’s confidential information, such as trade secrets, customer lists, and proprietary processes. By preventing former employees from working for competitors, businesses can reduce the risk of their confidential information being shared or misused, maintaining their competitive edge.
  2. Preservation of goodwill: Non-compete clauses help preserve a company’s goodwill by preventing former employees from soliciting or diverting clients or customers to competitors. This ensures that the employer’s investment in building customer relationships is protected, preserving the value of the business.
  3. Stability of workforce: Non-compete clauses contribute to the stability of the workforce by discouraging employees from leaving for competing companies. This helps maintain a productive and cohesive work environment, reducing the costs and disruptions associated with frequent turnover.
  4. Fair competition: Non-compete clauses promote fair competition in the marketplace by preventing former employees from immediately joining competitors and leveraging their knowledge to gain an unfair advantage. This ensures that businesses compete on their merits and not solely on the ability to hire away employees with valuable knowledge.
  5. Protection of investments in training and development: Non-compete clauses help protect a company’s investment in training and development by ensuring that former employees do not immediately benefit competitors with the skills and knowledge they acquired at the company’s expense. This encourages businesses to invest in employee development, enhancing the overall quality of the workforce.

Cons

The cons of the non-compete clause are:

  • It can limit your career opportunities: A non-compete clause can prevent you from working in your field of expertise for a certain period after leaving your current job. This can make it difficult to find new employment opportunities, especially if you are specialised in a particular industry or profession.
  • It can be unfair and restrictive: Non-compete clauses are often seen as unfair and restrictive by employees. They can prevent employees from pursuing new opportunities and stifle their career growth. This can be particularly problematic for employees who are laid off or terminated without cause.
  • It can be difficult to enforce: Non-compete clauses are often difficult to enforce, especially if the employee moves to a different state or country. This can make it costly and time-consuming for employers to pursue legal action against former employees who violate the clause.
  • It can damage relationships: Non-compete clauses can damage relationships between employers and employees. Employees may feel resentful towards their former employers for imposing such restrictions on their careers. This can lead to a loss of trust and cooperation in the workplace.
  • It can stifle innovation: Non-compete clauses can stifle innovation by preventing employees from sharing ideas and knowledge with other companies. This can lead to a lack of competition and a slower pace of innovation in the marketplace.

Overall, non-compete clauses can have a number of negative consequences for employees, employers, and the economy as a whole. They should be used sparingly and only when absolutely necessary.

Non-compete agreement  vs. non-disclosure agreement

A non-compete clause is part of an employment contract that is signed between employee and employer. A non-compete clause is a covenant clause, which means it puts some restriction on employees from engaging in similar types of employment or starting the same kind of business during the course of employment or after the termination of employment. Non-compete agreements are used to deter the employee from starting a similar business and becoming a direct competitor of the parent company , but they are not always enforceable in court.

A non-disclosure agreement is also known as a confidentiality agreement; it is a wider concept than the non-compete clause. Non-disclosure agreements can be made between employers, – employee, individual entities , business firms. It protects the confidential information of the parties to the agreement by creating an obligation on the parties  to protect the breach of confidential information, and it is enforceable in court.

Purpose of non-compete clauses

The purposes of non-compete clauses are:

Protection of secrets

Employers use non-compete clauses to protect valuable information and trade secrets of their businesses. During the course of  employment, employees often gain access to confidential data, client lists, business strategies, and proprietary knowledge. The clause prevents them from exploiting this sensitive information for competitive purposes.

Protects the interest of the employer

A non-compete clause helps the employer protect their interests by preventing a former employee from starting the same kind of business or accepting employment from the direct competitor of the employee.

Prevention of unfair competition

By restricting an employee’s ability to work for a competitor within a specified timeframe and geographic area, non-compete clauses aim to prevent unfair competition. This protects the company’s investment in training and development of its workforce, as well as its competitive advantage.

Constitutional safeguard

Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India provides the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business to all citizens, subject to Article 19(6), which enumerates the nature of restrictions that can be imposed by the state upon the above rights of the citizens. However, the non- compete clause is mutually agreed upon between the parties and it does not violate Article 19(1)(g).

Article 19 is available against the state – Many times, the apex court has mentioned that Article 19 is available against any state or body.

Non-compete clause under Indian Contract Act 1872

Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with agreements in restraint of trade. It states that every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising his lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void. This provision is based on the principle that everyone has a right to earn a livelihood and any agreement that restricts this right is against public policy.

What constitutes a restraint of trade? A restraint of trade is any agreement that prevents or restricts a person from engaging in a lawful trade or business. It can be expressed or implied, and it can be either partial or complete.

Examples of express restraints of trade include:

  • Non-compete clauses: These clauses prevent employees from working for a competitor for a certain period of time after they leave their job.
  • Non-solicitation clauses: These clauses prevent employees from soliciting customers or employees from their former employer.
  • Exclusive dealing agreements: These agreements require a buyer to purchase all of its goods or services from a single supplier.

Examples of implied restraints of trade include:

  • Covenants not to compete: These covenants are implied in some contracts, such as partnership agreements, and they prevent partners from competing with each other after the partnership is dissolved.
  • Duty of loyalty: This duty requires employees to act in the best interests of their employer, and it can prevent them from engaging in activities that are harmful to the employer’s business.

When is a restraint of trade valid?

A restraint of trade is only valid if it is reasonable and necessary to protect the legitimate interests of the party who is seeking to enforce it. The following factors are considered when determining whether a restraint of trade is reasonable:

  • The nature of the trade or business: Some businesses are more likely to be harmed by a restraint of trade than others. For example, a restraint of trade that prevents a doctor from practising medicine is more likely to be considered unreasonable than a restraint of trade that prevents a salesperson from selling products for a competitor.
  • The duration of the restraint: A restraint of trade that lasts for a longer period of time is more likely to be considered unreasonable than a restraint of trade that lasts for a shorter period of time.
  • The geographic scope of the restraint: A restraint of trade that covers a large geographic area is more likely to be considered unreasonable than a restraint of trade that covers a small geographic area.
  • The impact of the restraint on the employee: A restraint of trade that prevents an employee from earning a livelihood is more likely to be considered unreasonable than a restraint of trade that does not have a significant impact on the employee’s ability to earn a living.

Consequences of an invalid restraint of trade

If a restraint of trade is found to be invalid, it is void and unenforceable. This means that the parties to the contract are not bound by the restraint and they can engage in the trade or business that was restricted by the restraint.

In addition, the party who was injured by the restraint of trade may be entitled to damages. The damages can include lost profits, loss of goodwill, and other expenses that were caused by the restraint of trade.

Legality of non-compete clause in employment contracts

According to Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act 1872, an agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind is, to an extent, void. This means that non-compete clauses are not legally enforceable in India, as they are considered to be in restraint of  trade and against Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act. However, there are some exceptions and circumstances where a non-compete clause may be valid and enforceable, such as:

  • During the term of employment, you may restrict the employee  from engaging in any activity that is directly or indirectly in competition with the employer’s legitimate interests.
  • After the termination of  employment, an employee may be restrained from using or disclosing any trade secrets, confidential information, or proprietary data of the employer, as long as the duration, scope, and geographical area of the restraint are reasonable and do not impose a question of livelihood on the  employee. The doctrine of “the rule of reasonableness” is applied by court to decide whether the restrictions are valid or not.
  • A non-compete clause may also be valid and enforceable if it is part of a sale of goodwill or a partnership agreement where the seller or the outgoing partner agrees not to carry on a similar business within a specified area and time in order to protect the buyer or the remaining partners from unfair competition.
  • The courts have the discretion to examine each case on its own merits and decide whether a non-compete clause is reasonable and necessary to protect the legitimate interests of the parties involved.

Case laws

Superintendence Company of India (P) Ltd. vs. Krishan Murgai (1980)

The case of Superintendence Company of India (P) Ltd. v. Krishan Murgai (1980) is a landmark case in the realm of non-compete clauses in India. In this pivotal judgement, the Supreme Court of India underscored the significance of upholding the delicate balance between an employer’s legitimate business interests and an employee’s fundamental right to pursue their chosen profession.

Central to the Court’s decision was the interpretation of Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. This provision declares void any agreement that unreasonably restrains a person from exercising their lawful profession or trade. The Supreme Court examined the ambit and implications of the non-compete clause, highlighting its potential to stifle competition and hinder the employee’s freedom to engage in their chosen field. The Court held that such a clause was overly broad and went beyond what was reasonably necessary to protect the employer’s legitimate business interests.

This landmark judgement set a significant precedent, establishing the principle that non-compete clauses must be tailored to strike a fair balance between the employer’s need for protection and the employee’s right to pursue their livelihood.

Percept D’Mark (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Zaheer Khan & Anr (2006)

This is one of the recent cases involving the non-compete clause in India. The central issue in this case was whether the non-compete clause for the period of 3 years was valid under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872. The Bombay High Court held that a non-compete clause that prevented a cricketer from endorsing any competing brands of the company for three years after the expiry of the contract was valid and enforceable, as it was reasonable and necessary to protect the company’s interest in the exclusivity of the endorsement.

Orchid Pharma Ltd.  vs. Hospira Healthcare Pvt. Ltd. (2019) 

This  is one of the first cases where the Competition Commission of India (CCI) expressed its views on the non-compete clause. The CCI observed that a non-compete clause should be reasonable in terms of the duration, the scope, and the geographical area of the restraint, so as to ensure that it does not result in an appreciable adverse effect on competition.

In Niranjan Shankar Golikari vs. The Century Spinning and Manufacturing Co. (1967)

In this case, the Supreme Court held that a negative covenant during the period of employment  when the employee is bound to serve his employer exclusively are not to be regarded as restaurant of trade and do not fall under Section 27 of Indian Contract Act

Conclusion

The governing body for non-compete clauses is Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872, which says that every agreement is void if it’s restraining someone from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business. However, non-compete clauses are mutually agreed upon and allowed in some exception cases. Therefore, it can be concluded that non-compete clauses require a balanced approach to save the interests of both the employer and employee.

References

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