AIBE: mock test 1
source: https://bit.ly/2mOjdcZ

Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.

Mock Test 1 

1.) A valid contract requires: 

A.) Free Consent 

B.) Consideration 

C.) Lawful object 

D.) all of above 

2.) A contract is void under which of the following conditions ? 

A.) Coercion 

B.) Undue Influence 

C.) mistake of fact 

D.) fraud 

3.) A and B enter into a contract to commit a fraud. 

A.) The Contract is void for its unlawful object 

B.) The Contract is voidable for its unlawful object 

C.) The Contract is valid 

D.) none of the above 

4.) Is the Principal responsible for a sub-agent’s act ? 

A.) No, the sub-agent appointed by the agent is responsible 

B.) Yes, the principal is responsible 

C.) No, the principal is responsible for his agent and not a sub-agent 

D.) none of the above 

5.) When can an agent’s duty be terminated ? 

A.) Death of the principal 

B.) Insanity of the principal 

C.) Revocation by the principal 

D.) all of the above 

6.) A employs B to beat C and agrees to indemnify B, for all the consequences. B beats up C and is liable to pay damages for his wrongdoings: 

A.) A is not liable to indemnify B 

B.) A is liable to indemnify B 

C.) A is liable to indemnify B being the principal 

D.) none of the above 

7.) A employs B to buy a house for himself. B buys a house and furnishes it completely. 

A.) A is liable to pay for the house and furnishing 

B.) A is liable to pay for the house 

 

C.) A is not liable to pay anything because B exceeded his authority 

D.) none of the above 

8.) Who will be held liable for the acts of a pretended agent? 

A.) The pretended agent himself 

B.) The principal if he ratifies the agents act 

C.) The principle without ratifying the agents act 

D.) both A and B 

9.) Arun employs Ram to sell his house not below Rs. 1 Lakh. Ram sells it to Abhay for Rs. 70000. 

A.) The sale is valid 

B.) The sale is void 

C.) The sale is voidable 

D.) Both b and c 

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10.) Which of the following agreements are voidable? 

A.) Agreement in restraint of marriage 

B.) Agreement in restraint of trade 

C.) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings 

D.) none of the above 

11.) The Negotiable Instruments Act extends to: 

A.) The whole of India 

B.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir 

C.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir and Nagaland 

D.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh 

12.) According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, which of the following are considered to be instruments? 

A.) Promissory Note 

B.) bills of exchange 

C.) cheque 

D.) all of the above 

13.) A cheque is valid for a period of: 

A.) 12 months 

B.) 3 months 

C.) 6 months 

D.) 4 months 

14.) If the amount in a negotiable instrument is different in words and figures: 

A.) The amount stated in figures has to be considered 

B.) The amount stated in words has to be considered 

C.) The negotiable instrument will stand as cancelled 

D.) The holder of the instrument has the discretion to consider the amount either in figures or in words 

15.) If a negotiable instrument does not specify the time for payment, it is: 

A.) Payable on demand 

B.) Not payable at all 

C.) Not considered as an instrument 

D.) none of the above 

16.) A bill of exchange has been endorsed fraudulently. Ram accepts the bill of exchange even after knowing that the endorsement is forged. Is Ram liable? 

A.) No, Ram did not forge the endorsement 

B.) Yes, Ram accepted the instrument even after having knowledge of the forgery. 

C.) No, Ram did not do anything wrong by accepting the bill of exchange 

D.) Both a and c 

17.) The holder of a bill of exchange must allow…………hours to the drawee of the bill to consider whether to accept or not: 

A.) 96 hours 

B.) 72 hours 

C.) 48 hours 

D.) 24 hours 

18.) Specific Relief can be granted for: 

A.) Individual Civil Rights 

B.) Penal laws 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) none of the above 

19.) Rahul enters into an agreement to sell his apple orchard to Rohit. Rahul did not know that his apple orchard was acquired by the government at the time of making the contract. Is this contract specifically enforceable? 

A.) Yes, Rahul entered into the contract in good faith and thought he had a good title to his orchard 

B.) No, Rahul did not have a good title to his orchard 

C.) Yes, the contract is valid and it is specifically enforceable 

D.) a and c 

20.) Under which of the following circumstances can a contract be rescinded? 

A.) Yes, when the contract is voidable or terminable 

B.) Yes, when the contract is unlawful 

C.) No, a contract cannot be rescinded 

D.) a and b 

21.) The Code of Civil Procedure extends to the whole of India except 

A.) Jammu& and Kashmir 

B.) Nagaland 

C.) Jammu and Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh 

D.) Jammu& and Kashmir and Nagaland 

22.) Ajit is in wrongful possession of Arun’s property situated in Pune. Arun a resident of Bangalore institutes a suit against Ajit in Pune. The decision is pending in the court. At the same time Arun institutes a same suit against Ajit in a Bangalore court. The suit is: 

A.) Barred by Res Judicata 

B.) Not barred by Res Judicata 

C.) Barred by Res Sub Judice 

D.) Not barred by Res Sub Judice 

23.) Suraj runs a newspaper agency in Delhi. His agency published defamatory remarks against Gaurav in Calcutta. Gaurav can institute a suit against Suraj in: 

A.) calcutta only 

B.) delhi only 

C.) either calcutta or delhi 

D.) non of the above 

24.) Can a suit be transferred from one court to another after being instituted? 

A.) Yes, it can be transferred 

B.) No, it cannot be transferred ever 

C.) No , it cannot be transferred after instituting a suit 

D.) both b and c 

25.) According to the Code of Civil Procedure, a court after issuing summons to a person can compel his attendance by: 

A.) Issuing a warrant for his arrest 

B.) Attach and sell his property 

C.) Impose a fine upon him not exceeding five hundred rupees 

D.) all of the above 

26.) A court has the power to issue a commission to: 

A.) Examine a person 

B.) Examine or adjust accounts 

C.) Make a partition 

D.) all of the above 

27.) A decree has been passed against the Government Of India. The decree can only be executed after the expiry of _______ months by the decree holder: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

28.) A suit against public nuisance may be instituted by 

A.) Advocate General 

B.) Attorney General 

C.) Solicitior General 

D.) Either a or b or c 

29.) Under which of the following circumstances can the High Court call for a revision of a case decided by a subordinate court : 

A.) When the subordinate court has exercised irregular jurisdiction 

B.) When the subordinate court has failed to exercise the jurisdiction so vested 

C.) When the subordinate court has exercised its jurisdiction illegally 

D.) All of the above 

30.) According to the Code of Civil Procedure, an alien enemy may sue in a competent Indian court with the permission of the: 

A.) President 

B.) Central Government 

C.) Chief Justice of India 

D.) Either a or c 

31.) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is mentioned in article: 

A.) 18 

B.) 19 

C.) 20 

D.) 21 

32.) The minimum age of the President of India should be: 

A.) 25 

B.) 30 

C.) 35 

D.) 40 

33.) A dispute regarding the election of the president is decided by: 

A.) An independent committee appointed by the Central Government 

B.) The Parliament 

C.) The Supreme Court 

D.) Both A & B 

34.) A money bill can only be introduced in the: 

A.) Lok Sabha 

B.) Rajya Sabha 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) Legislative Council 

35.) Anti-Defection law is mentioned in the………. Schedule of the constitution: 

A.) 9th 

B.) 10th 

C.) 11th 

D.) 12th 

36.) As per the Constitution, how many states have a bicameral legislature? 

A.) 4 

B.) 5 

C.) 6 

D.) 7 

37.) A Gram Sabha exercises powers at the village level as per law passed by the: 

A.) Parliament 

B.) State Legislature 

C.) Either a or b 

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D.) non of the above 

38.) The Finance Commission consists of : 

A.) A chairman and 3 other members 

B.) A chairman and 4 other members 

C.) A chairman and 5 other members 

D.) A chairman and 6 other members 

39.) Right to Property is: 

A.) A constitutional Right 

B.) A Fundamental Right 

C.) A Fundamental Duty 

D.) Both b and c 

40.) The language of the union is mentioned in the………..schedule of the constitution: 

A.) 2nd 

B.) 4th 

C.) 6th 

D.) 8th 

41.) With respect to a cognizable case, investigation can be commenced by a police 

A.) With the permission of the magistrate 

B.) Without the permission of the magistrate 

C.) With the permission of a senior police officer 

D.) Without the permission of the police officer 

42.) If an investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours, then the magistrate can detain the accused in custody for a term usually not exceeding………..days: 

A.) 7 

B.) 10 

C.) 12 

D.) 15 

43.) In a cognizable offence, a person can be arrested: 

A.) With a warrant 

B.) Without a warrant 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) none of the above 

44.) An investigation under the CrPC is conducted by 

A.) A police officer 

B.) A magistrate 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) both a and b 

45.) A warrant-case is one where the punishment prescribed is imprisonment exceeding ………. year/years: 

A.) 1 

B.) 2 

C.) 4 

D.) 7 

46.) The officers of the courts of Judicial magistrates are appointed by: 

A.) President 

B.) Supreme Court 

C.) High Court 

D.) Governor of the concerned state 

47.) A first-class magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding…….years: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

48.) A person who is arrested believes that he may be exculpated if his medical test is conducted. Which officer’s order is required for his medical examination? 

A.) Superintendent of Police 

B.) Commissioner of Police 

C.) Station House Officer 

D.) Magistrate 

49.) A person arrested by a police officer without a warrant cannot be detained in custody beyond……..hours: 

A.) 12 

B.) 24 

C.) 48 

D.) 72 

50.) A death sentence passed by a Sessions Judge has to be confirmed by: 

A.) An additional sessions judge 

B.) High Court 

C.) Governor of the concerned state 

D.) either a or b or c 

51.) According to the Evidence Act, the expression “a court may presume a fact” means: 

A.) The court may regard such fact as proved unless it is disproved 

B.) The court may ask for the proof of such fact 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

52.) Under which of the following instances, can a court avail the opinion of an expert: 

A.) Upon a point of foreign law 

B.) Upon an issue in Science 

C.) Upon an issue in Arts 

D.) All of the above 

53.) According to Evidence Act, oral evidence is considered to be: 

A.) Direct evidence 

B.) Indirect evidence 

C.) It could be either a or b, depending on the circumstances 

D.) Oral evidence is not recognised under this act 

54.) According to the Evidence Act, the contents of a document may be proved by: 

A.) Primary Evidence 

B.) Secondary evidence 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) None of the above 

55.) A court will presume a certified copy to be genuine if: 

A.) It is by law admissible 

B.) It is duly certified by an appropriate officer of the Central or State Government 

C.) It has been executed substantially in the form and manner directed by law 

D.) All of the above 

56.) The doctrine of Res Gestae is explained under which of the following sections: 

A.) 5,6,7,8 

B.) 6,7,8,9 

C.) 7,8,9,10 

D.) 4,5,6,7 

57.) Ajay prays to the court to punish Bob and Rahul for the offences committed by them together against Ajay. The burden of proof lies on: 

A.) Ajay for proving the offences committed against him 

B.) Bob for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

C.) Rahul for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

D.) Bob and Rahul together for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

58.) Sneha has suffered 95 percent burn injuries. At her death bed Sneha alleges Ishan to have set her on fire: 

A.) Sneha’s statement is admissible only after sufficient evidence 

B.) Sneha’s statement is admissible as a dying declaration 

C.) Sneha’s statement is not admissible at all 

D.) Either a or b 

59.) Shaun, a British citizen, murders Akshay an Indian citizen on a registered Indian vessel in the English channel: 

A.) Shaun can be tried under the IPC because he has committed the offence on a registered Indian vessel 

B.) Shaun can be tried under the IPC because he has committed an offence against an Indian citizen 

C.) Shaun cannot be tried under the IPC because the crime was committed in the English channel, where the code does not extend 

D.) Both a and b 

60.) A, B and C play for the Rising Star cricket team. All the three players agree to commit theft at the team sponsor’s office against payment of some money. A, B, C have committed the offence of: 

A.) Criminal Conspiracy 

B.) Theft 

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C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

61.) The punishment for waging war against the Government of India is: 

A.) Death sentence 

B.) Life imprisonment 

C.) Fine 

D.) Either a and c or b and c 

62.) Rohit, with the intention of shooting at a rabbit, ends up shooting at Ram accidentally and kills him. Rohit is guilty of: 

A.) Culpable Homicide 

B.) Murder 

C.) Culpable Homicide amounting to murder 

D.) None of the above 

63.) A death of a woman within………years of marriage due to cruelty of her husband is considered to be a dowry death: 

A.) 3 

B.) 5 

C.) 7 

D.) 9 

64.) The minimum number of people required to commit a dacoity is: 

A.) 3 

B.) 4 

C.) 5 

D.) 6 

65.) The famous case of Donoghue v Stevenson created the concept of: 

A.) Nuisance 

B.) Negligence 

C.) Trespass 

D.) Defamation 

66.) Which of the following does not come under defamation: 

A.) Libel 

B.) Slander 

C.) Innuendo 

D.) Hypothecation 

67.) Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the compensation to be paid for the death of a person in a hit and run case without the driver being at fault is: 

A.) 12500 

B.) 25000 

C.) 40000 

D.) 50000 

68.) An application for compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act must be made to the: 

 

A.) District Court 

B.) Metropolitan Court 

C.) Motor Accident Claims Tribunal 

D.) Both a and b 

69.) The proceeding of the District Forum for consumer protection shall be conducted by: 

A.) The President and at least one member 

B.) The President only 

C.) The Vice-President only 

D.) Either b or c 

70.) The limitation period of filing a consumer complaint with the district forum is: 

A.) Within 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

B.) Within 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

C.) Within 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

D.) Within 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

71.) Under the Factories Act 1948, a person having ultimate control over the affairs of the factory is called: 

A.) Occupier 

B.) Manager 

C.) Chairman 

D.) Managing Director 

72.) The first factory Act was enacted 

A.) 1880 

B.) 1881 

C.) 1882 

D.) 1883 

73.) According to the Industrial disputes act, Retrenchment means: 

A.) Voluntary retirement of an employee 

B.) Transfer of an employee from one department to another 

C.) Termination of Employees service 

D.) None of the above 

74.) According to the Industrial Disputes Act, a Works Committee is required to be formed when there are more than………. Workmen: 

A.) 250 

B.) 200 

C.) 150 

D.) 100 

75.) Children born to a Hindu who has converted before they were born, are: 

A.) Entitled to succession 

B.) Disqualified from succession 

C.) Partly disqualified from succession 

D.) None of the above 

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76.) According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, what are the criteria for adoption by a female Hindu: 

A.) The female Hindu should be of sound mind 

B.) The marriage of the female Hindu must have been dissolved 

C.) The husband of the female Hindu must have died 

D.) All of the above 

77.) According to the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, what are the grounds of divorce for a woman: 

A.) When her husband has been imprisoned for 7 years 

B.) When her husband is suffering from leprosy 

C.) Where her husband is impotent 

D.) All of the above 

78.) Ashish and Rohan are brothers. They were born from the same mother but different fathers. How are they related according to the Hindu Marriage Act: 

A.) Full blood 

B.) Half blood 

C.) Uterine Blood 

D.) None of the above 

79.) What procedure must be followed to change the name of a company, under the Companies Act? 

A.) By passing a special resolution in the general meeting of the company 

B.) Approval from the Central Government 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

80.) An Extraordinary General Meeting can be called by: 

A.) The Board of Directors of the company acting on their own 

B.) The Board of Directors on requisition by shareholders 

C.) The shareholders acting on their own, if the Board refuses to convene a meeting 

D.) All of the above 

81.) The shares that must be held by a person so that he can qualify to be a Director of a company are known as: 

A.) Qualification shares 

B.) Pre-qualification shares 

C.) Nomination shares 

D.) Eligibility Shares 

82.) Which of the following actions affects the rights of preference shareholders and hence requires their vote to be taken at a meeting: 

A.) Winding up of the company 

B.) Repayment of Share Capital 

C.) Reduction of Share Capital 

D.) All of the above 

83.) The mandate of an arbitrator terminates, when: 

A.) When the arbitrator is de facto unable to perform his functions 

B.) When the arbitrator withdraws from his office 

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C.) When the parties terminate his mandate 

D.) All of the above 

84.) In an international commercial arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall decide the dispute in accordance with the: 

A.) Rules of law designated by the parties as applicable to the dispute 

B.) Any system of law deemed appropriate by the tribunal 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

85.) In which of the following instances can an arbitral tribunal terminate the arbitral proceedings: 

A.) When the claimant withdraws his claim 

B.) When the parties to the proceedings consent to its termination 

C.) When the continuance of the proceedings becomes unnecessary or impossible 

D.) All of the above 

86.) An ‘additional award’ must be made by an Arbitral Tribunal within……… days of receiving the application from the concerned party: 

A.) 30 

B.) 45 

C.) 60 

D.) 90 

87.) According to the Advocates Act 1961, appointed day means: 

A.) The day on which an advocate is appointed as a judge of the High Court 

B.) The day on which an advocate is appointed as the Vice President of the Bar Council Of India 

C.) The day on which the provisions of the act come into force 

D.) None of the above 

88.) In the State Bar Council of Delhi, the ……….. is the ex officio member: 

A.) Attorney General of India 

B.) Advocate General of the National Capital territory of Delhi 

C.) Solicitor General Of India 

D.) Additional Solicitor General Of India 

89.) Every Bar Council is like a body corporate having: 

A.) Perpetual Succession 

B.) Common Seal 

C.) Power to acquire and hold property 

D.) All of the above 

90.) The Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council consists of……….. members: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

91.) If an advocate is enrolled in a State Bar Council, he is entitled to practise in: 

A.) All the courts including the Supreme Court 

B.) All tribunals or persons legally authorised to take evidence 

C.) Any authority under which an advocate is entitled to practise under any law 

D.) All of the above 

92.) An advocate’s duty to the court includes: 

A.) Maintaining dignity and self-respect while his case in the court 

B.) Not influencing the decision of the court through improper means 

C.) Refraining his client from adopting unfair practises 

D.) All of the above 

93.) A complaint against an advocate should be in the form of a: 

A.) Letter 

B.) Petition 

C.) Application 

D.) Both b and c 

94.) Who is authorised to fix the date and place of enquiry in the Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council: 

A.) Probing body of the Disciplinary Committee 

B.) Chairman of the Bar Council 

C.) Ex officio member of the Bar Council 

D.) Both b and c 

95.) Raj has to file an application in the court by the 14th of June. Incidentally, the 14th day of June is a court holiday. Will Raj’s application is considered if he files it on the 15th of June: 

A.) Yes, since his term for filing an application expired on a court holiday 

B.) No, since 14th June was the last day of filing the application 

C.) No, since Raj was careless for not filing the application before the 14th of June, knowing it to be a court holiday 

D.) Both b and c 

96.) Rahul had to institute a suit regarding a possession of a property by the 31st of July 2013. He filed a suit on the 30th November 2013 . Rahul’s suit is clearly barred by limitation. Rahul’s right to property has been: 

A.) Extinguished 

B.) Not extinguished 

C.) Temporarily extinguished 

D.) None of the above 

97.) Audi alteram partem means: 

A.) Supremacy of Law 

B.) No person should be condemned unheard 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

98.) The expression ‘Rule of Law’ was used by: 

A.) A.V Dicey 

B.) Emmanuel Kant 

C.) Professor Ullman 

D.) None of the above 

99.) CAT stands for: 

A.) Central Authority Tribunal 

B.) Central Administrative Tribunal 

C.) Central Adjudicatory Tribunal 

D.) None of the above 

100.) Central Vigilance Commission checks up on the corruption by: 

A.) Judge 

B.) Minister 

C.) Public Servants 

D.) None of the above 

1.) A valid contract requires: 

A.) Free Consent 

B.) Consideration 

C.) Lawful object 

D.) all of above 

2.) A contract is void under which of the following conditions ? 

A.) Coercion 

B.) Undue Influence 

C.) mistake of fact 

D.) fraud 

3.) A and B enter into a contract to commit a fraud. 

A.) The Contract is void for its unlawful object 

B.) The Contract is voidable for its unlawful object 

C.) The Contract is valid 

D.) none of the above 

4.) Is the Principal responsible for a sub-agent’s act ? 

A.) No, the sub-agent appointed by the agent is responsible 

B.) Yes, the principal is responsible 

C.) No, the principal is responsible for his agent and not a sub-agent 

D.) none of the above 

5.) When can an agent’s duty be terminated ? 

A.) Death of the principal 

B.) Insanity of the principal 

C.) Revocation by the principal 

D.) all of the above 

6.) A employs B to beat C and agrees to indemnify B, for all the consequences. B beats up C and is liable to pay damages for his wrongdoings: 

A.) A is not liable to indemnify B 

B.) A is liable to indemnify B 

C.) A is liable to indemnify B being the principal 

D.) none of the above 

7.) A employs B to buy a house for himself. B buys a house and furnishes it completely. 

A.) A is liable to pay for the house and furnishing 

B.) A is liable to pay for the house 

C.) A is not liable to pay anything because B exceeded his authority 

D.) none of the above 

8.) Who will be held liable for the acts of a pretended agent? 

A.) The pretended agent himself 

B.) The principal if he ratifies the agents act 

C.) The principle without ratifying the agents act 

D.) both A and B 

9.) Arun employs Ram to sell his house not below Rs. 1 Lakh. Ram sells it to Abhay for Rs. 70000. 

A.) The sale is valid 

B.) The sale is void 

C.) The sale is voidable 

D.) Both b and c 

10.) Which of the following agreements are voidable? 

A.) Agreement in restraint of marriage 

B.) Agreement in restraint of trade 

C.) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings 

D.) none of the above 

11.) The Negotiable Instruments Act extends to: 

A.) The whole of India 

B.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir 

C.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir and Nagaland 

D.) The whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh 

12.) According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, which of the following are considered to be instruments? 

A.) Promissory Note 

B.) bills of excahange 

C.) cheque 

D.) all of the above 

13.) A cheque is valid for a period of: 

A.) 12 months 

B.) 3 months 

C.) 6 months 

D.) 4 months 

 

14.) If the amount in a negotiable instrument is different in words and figures: 

A.) The amount stated in figures has to be considered 

B.) The amount stated in words has to be considered 

C.) The negotiable instrument will stand as cancelled 

D.) The holder of the instrument has the discretion to consider the amount either in figures or in words 

15.) If a negotiable instrument does not specify the time for payment, it is: 

A.) Payable on demand 

B.) Not payable at all 

C.) Not considered as an instrument 

D.) none of the above 

16.) A bill of exchange has been endorsed fraudulently. Ram accepts the bill of exchange even after knowing that the endorsement is forged. Is Ram liable? 

A.) No, Ram did not forge the endorsement 

B.) Yes, Ram accepted the instrument even after having knowledge of the forgery. 

C.) No, Ram did not do anything wrong by accepting the bill of exchange 

D.) Both a and c 

17.) The holder of a bill of exchange must allow…………hours to the drawee of the bill to consider whether to accept or not: 

A.) 96 hours 

B.) 72 hours 

C.) 48 hours 

D.) 24 hours 

18.) Specific Relief can be granted for: 

A.) Individual Civil Rights 

B.) Penal laws 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) none of the above 

19.) Rahul enters into an agreement to sell his apple orchard to Rohit. Rahul did not know that his apple orchard was acquired by the government at the time of making the contract. Is this contract specifically enforceable? 

A.) Yes, Rahul entered into the contract in good faith and thought he had a good title to his orchard 

B.) No, Rahul did not have a good title to his orchard 

C.) Yes, the contract is valid and it is specifically enforceable 

D.) a and c 

20.) Under which of the following circumstances can a contract be rescinded? 

A.) Yes, when the contract is voidable or terminable 

B.) Yes, when the contract is unlawful 

C.) No, a contract cannot be rescinded 

D.) a and b 

21.) The Code of Civil Procedure extends to the whole of India except 

A.) Jammu& and Kashmir 

B.) Nagaland 

C.) Jammu and Kashmir and Arunachal Pradesh 

D.) Jammu& and Kashmir and Nagaland 

22.) Ajit is in wrongful possession of Arun’s property situated in Pune. Arun a resident of Bangalore institutes a suit against Ajit in Pune. The decision is pending in the court. At the same time Arun institutes a same suit against Ajit in a Bangalore court. The suit is: 

A.) Barred by Res Judicata 

B.) Not barred by Res Judicata 

C.) Barred by Res Sub Judice 

D.) Not barred by Res Sub Judice 

23.) Suraj runs a newspaper agency in Delhi. His agency published defamatory remarks against Gaurav in Calcutta. Gaurav can institute a suit against Suraj in: 

A.) calcutta only 

B.) delhi only 

C.) either calcutta or delhi 

D.) non of the above 

24.) Can a suit be transferred from one court to another after being instituted? 

A.) Yes, it can be transferred 

B.) No, it cannot be transferred ever 

C.) No , it cannot be transferred after instituting a suit 

D.) both b and c 

25.) According to the Code of Civil Procedure, a court after issuing summons to a person can compel his attendance by: 

A.) Issuing a warrant for his arrest 

B.) Attach and sell his property 

C.) Impose a fine upon him not exceeding five hundred rupees 

D.) all of the above 

26.) A court has the power to issue a commission to: 

A.) Examine a person 

B.) Examine or adjust accounts 

C.) Make a partition 

D.) all of the above 

27.) A decree has been passed against the Government Of India. The decree can only be executed after the expiry of _______ months by the decree holder: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

28.) A suit against public nuisance may be instituted by 

A.) Advocate General 

B.) Attorney General 

C.) Solicitior General 

D.) Either a or b or c 

29.) Under which of the following circumstances can the High Court call for a revision of a case decided by a subordinate court : 

A.) When the subordinate court has exercised irregular jurisdiction 

B.) When the subordinate court has failed to exercise the jurisdiction so vested 

C.) When the subordinate court has exercised its jurisdiction illegally 

D.) All of the above 

30.) According to the Code of Civil Procedure, an alien enemy may sue in a competent Indian court with the permission of the: 

A.) President 

B.) Central Government 

C.) Chief Justice of India 

D.) Either a or c 

31.) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is mentioned in article: 

A.) 18 

B.) 19 

C.) 20 

D.) 21 

32.) The minimum age of the President of India should be: 

A.) 25 

B.) 30 

C.) 35 

D.) 40 

33.) A dispute regarding the election of the president is decided by: 

A.) An independent committee appointed by the Central Government 

B.) The Parliament 

C.) The Supreme Court 

D.) Both A & B 

34.) A money bill can only be introduced in the: 

A.) Lok Sabha 

B.) Rajya Sabha 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) Legislative Council 

35.) Anti-Defection law is mentioned in the………. Schedule of the constitution: 

A.) 9th 

B.) 10th 

C.) 11th 

D.) 12th 

36.) As per the Constitution, how many states have a bicameral legislature? 

A.) 4 

B.) 5 

C.) 6 

D.) 7 

37.) A Gram Sabha exercises powers at the village level as per law passed by the: 

A.) Parliament 

B.) State Legislature 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) non of the above 

38.) The Finance Commission consists of : 

A.) A chairman and 3 other members 

B.) A chairman and 4 other members 

C.) A chairman and 5 other members 

D.) A chairman and 6 other members 

39.) Right to Property is: 

A.) A constitutional Right 

B.) A Fundamental Right 

C.) A Fundamental Duty 

D.) Both b and c 

40.) The language of the union is mentioned in the………..schedule of the constitution: 

A.) 2nd 

B.) 4th 

C.) 6th 

D.) 8th 

41.) With respect to a cognizable case, investigation can be commenced by a police 

A.) With the permission of the magistrate 

B.) Without the permission of the magistrate 

C.) With the permission of a senior police officer 

D.) Without the permission of the police officer 

42.) If an investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours, then the magistrate can detain the accused in custody for a term usually not exceeding………..days: 

A.) 7 

B.) 10 

C.) 12 

D.) 15 

43.) In a cognizable offence, a person can be arrested: 

A.) With a warrant 

B.) Without a warrant 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) none of the above 

44.) An investigation under the CrPC is conducted by 

A.) A police officer 

B.) A magistrate 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) both a and b 

45.) A warrant-case is one where the punishment prescribed is imprisonment exceeding ………. year/years: 

A.) 1 

B.) 2 

C.) 4 

D.) 7 

46.) The officers of the courts of Judicial magistrates are appointed by: 

A.) President 

B.) Supreme Court 

C.) High Court 

D.) Governor of the concerned state 

47.) A first class magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding…….years: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

48.) A person who is arrested believes that he may be exculpated if his medical test is conducted. Which officer’s order is required for his medical examination? 

A.) Superintendent of Police 

B.) Commissioner of Police 

C.) Station House Officer 

D.) Magistrate 

49.) A person arrested by a police officer without a warrant cannot be detained in custody beyond……..hours: 

A.) 12 

B.) 24 

C.) 48 

D.) 72 

50.) A death sentence passed by a Sessions Judge has to be confirmed by: 

A.) An additional sessions judge 

B.) High Court 

C.) Governor of the concerned state 

D.) either a or b or c 

51.) According to the Evidence Act, the expression “a court may presume a fact” means: 

A.) The court may regard such fact as proved unless it is disproved 

B.) The court may ask for the proof of such fact 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

52.) Under which of the following instances, can a court avail the opinion of an expert: 

A.) Upon a point of foreign law 

B.) Upon an issue in Science 

C.) Upon an issue in Arts 

D.) All of the above 

53.) According to Evidence Act, oral evidence is considered to be: 

A.) Direct evidence 

B.) Indirect evidence 

C.) It could be either a or b, depending on the circumstances 

D.) Oral evidence is not recognised under this act 

54.) According to the Evidence Act, the contents of a document may be proved by: 

A.) Primary Evidence 

B.) Secondary evidence 

C.) Either a or b 

D.) None of the above 

55.) A court will presume a certified copy to be genuine if: 

A.) It is by law admissible 

B.) It is duly certified by an appropriate officer of the Central or State Government 

C.) It has been executed substantially in the form and manner directed by law 

D.) All of the above 

56.) The doctrine of Res Gestae is explained under which of the following sections: 

A.) 5,6,7,8 

B.) 6,7,8,9 

C.) 7,8,9,10 

D.) 4,5,6,7 

57.) Ajay prays to the court to punish Bob and Rahul for the offences committed by them together against Ajay. The burden of proof lies on: 

A.) Ajay for proving the offences committed against him 

B.) Bob for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

C.) Rahul for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

D.) Bob and Rahul together for disproving Ajay’s allegations 

58.) Sneha has suffered 95 percent burn injuries. At her death bed Sneha alleges Ishan to have set her on fire: 

A.) Sneha’s statement is admissible only after sufficient evidence 

B.) Sneha’s statement is admissible as a dying declaration 

C.) Sneha’s statement is not admissible at all 

D.) Either a or b 

59.) Shaun, a British citizen, murders Akshay an Indian citizen on a registered Indian vessel in the English channel: 

A.) Shaun can be tried under the IPC because he has committed the offence on a registered Indian vessel 

 

B.) Shaun can be tried under the IPC because he has committed an offence against an Indian citizen 

C.) Shaun cannot be tried under the IPC because the crime was committed in the English channel, where the code does not extend 

D.) Both a and b 

60.) A, B and C play for the Rising Star cricket team. All the three players agree to commit theft at the team sponsor’s office against payment of some money. A, B, C have committed the offence of: 

A.) Criminal Conspiracy 

B.) Theft 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

61.) The punishment for waging war against the Government of India is: 

A.) Death sentence 

B.) Life imprisonment 

C.) Fine 

D.) Either a and c or b and c 

62.) Rohit, with the intention of shooting at a rabbit, ends up shooting at Ram accidentally and kills him. Rohit is guilty of: 

A.) Culpable Homicide 

B.) Murder 

C.) Culpable Homicide amounting to murder 

D.) None of the above 

63.) A death of a woman within………years of marriage due to cruelty of her husband is considered to be a dowry death: 

A.) 3 

B.) 5 

C.) 7 

D.) 9 

64.) The minimum number of people required to commit a dacoity is: 

A.) 3 

B.) 4 

C.) 5 

D.) 6 

65.) The famous case of Donoghue v Stevenson created the concept of: 

A.) Nuisance 

B.) Negligence 

C.) Trespass 

D.) Defamation 

66.) Which of the following does not come under defamation: 

A.) Libel 

B.) Slander 

C.) Innuendo 

D.) Hypothecation 

67.) Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the compensation to be paid for the death of a person in a hit and run case without the driver being at fault is: 

A.) 12500 

B.) 25000 

C.) 40000 

D.) 50000 

68.) An application for compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act must be made to the: 

A.) District Court 

B.) Metropolitan Court 

C.) Motor Accident Claims Tribunal 

D.) Both a and b 

69.) The proceeding of the District Forum for consumer protection shall be conducted by: 

A.) The President and at least one member 

B.) The President only 

C.) The Vice-President only 

D.) Either b or c 

70.) The limitation period of filing a consumer complaint with the district forum is: 

A.) Within 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

B.) Within 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

C.) Within 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

D.) Within 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen 

71.) Under the Factories Act 1948, a person having ultimate control over the affairs of the factory is called: 

A.) Occupier 

B.) Manager 

C.) Chairman 

D.) Managing Director 

72.) The first factory Act was enacted 

A.) 1880 

B.) 1881 

C.) 1882 

D.) 1883 

73.) According to the Industrial disputes act, Retrenchment means: 

A.) Voluntary retirement of an employee 

B.) Transfer of an employee from one department to another 

C.) Termination of Employees service 

D.) None of the above 

74.) According to the Industrial Disputes Act, a Works Committee is required to be formed when there are more than………. Workmen: 

A.) 250 

B.) 200 

 

C.) 150 

D.) 100 

75.) Children born to a Hindu who has converted before they were born, are: 

A.) Entitled to succession 

B.) Disqualified from succession 

C.) Partly disqualified from succession 

D.) None of the above 

76.) According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, what are the criteria for adoption by a female Hindu: 

A.) The female Hindu should be of sound mind 

B.) The marriage of the female Hindu must have been dissolved 

C.) The husband of the female Hindu must have died 

D.) All of the above 

77.) According to the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, what are the grounds of divorce for a woman: 

A.) When her husband has been imprisoned for 7 years 

B.) When her husband is suffering from leprosy 

C.) Where her husband is impotent 

D.) All of the above 

78.) Ashish and Rohan are brothers. They were born from the same mother but different fathers. How are they related according to the Hindu Marriage Act: 

A.) Full blood 

B.) Half blood 

C.) Uterine Blood 

D.) None of the above 

79.) What procedure must be followed to change the name of a company, under the Companies Act? 

A.) By passing a special resolution in the general meeting of the company 

B.) Approval from the Central Government 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

80.) An Extraordinary General Meeting can be called by: 

A.) The Board of Directors of the company acting on their own 

B.) The Board of Directors on requisition by shareholders 

C.) The shareholders acting on their own, if the Board refuses to convene a meeting 

D.) All of the above 

81.) The shares that must be held by a person so that he can qualify to be a Director of a company are known as: 

A.) Qualification shares 

B.) Pre-qualification shares 

C.) Nomination shares 

D.) Eligibility Shares 

82.) Which of the following actions affects the rights of preference shareholders and hence requires their vote to be taken at a meeting: 

A.) Winding up of the company 

B.) Repayment of Share Capital 

C.) Reduction of Share Capital 

D.) All of the above 

83.) The mandate of an arbitrator terminates, when: 

A.) When the arbitrator is de facto unable to perform his functions 

B.) When the arbitrator withdraws from his office 

C.) When the parties terminate his mandate 

D.) All of the above 

84.) In an international commercial arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall decide the dispute in accordance with the: 

A.) Rules of law designated by the parties as applicable to the dispute 

B.) Any system of law deemed appropriate by the tribunal 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

85.) In which of the following instances can an arbitral tribunal terminate the arbitral proceedings: 

A.) When the claimant withdraws his claim 

B.) When the parties to the proceedings consent to its termination 

C.) When the continuance of the proceedings becomes unnecessary or impossible 

D.) All of the above 

86.) An ‘additional award’ must be made by an Arbitral Tribunal within……… days of receiving the application from the concerned party: 

A.) 30 

B.) 45 

C.) 60 

D.) 90 

87.) According to the Advocates Act 1961, appointed day means: 

A.) The day on which an advocate is appointed as a judge of the High Court 

B.) The day on which an advocate is appointed as the Vice President of the Bar Council Of India 

C.) The day on which the provisions of the act come into force 

D.) None of the above 

88.) In the State Bar Council of Delhi, the ……….. is the ex officio member: 

A.) Attorney General of India 

B.) Advocate General of the National Capital territory of Delhi 

C.) Solicitor General Of India 

D.) Additional Solicitor General Of India 

89.) Every Bar Council is like a body corporate having: 

A.) Perpetual Succession 

B.) Common Seal 

C.) Power to acquire and hold property 

D.) All of the above 

 

90.) The Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council consists of……….. members: 

A.) 2 

B.) 3 

C.) 4 

D.) 5 

91.) If an advocate is enrolled in a State Bar Council, he is entitled to practise in: 

A.) All the courts including the Supreme Court 

B.) All tribunals or persons legally authorised to take evidence 

C.) Any authority under which an advocate is entitled to practise under any law 

D.) All of the above 

92.) An advocate’s duty to the court includes: 

A.) Maintaining dignity and self-respect while his case in the court 

B.) Not influencing the decision of the court through improper means 

C.) Refraining his client from adopting unfair practises 

D.) All of the above 

93.) A complaint against an advocate should be in the form of a: 

A.) Letter 

B.) Petition 

C.) Application 

D.) Both b and c 

94.) Who is authorised to fix the date and place of enquiry in the Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council: 

A.) Probing body of the Disciplinary Committee 

B.) Chairman of the Bar Council 

C.) Ex officio member of the Bar Council 

D.) Both b and c 

95.) Raj has to file an application in the court by the 14th of June. Incidentally the 14th day of June is a court holiday. Will Raj’s application be considered if he files it on the 15th of June: 

A.) Yes, since his term for filing an application expired on a court holiday 

B.) No, since 14th June was the last day of filing the application 

C.) No, since Raj was careless for not filing the application before the 14th of June, knowing it to be a court holiday 

D.) Both b and c 

96.) Rahul had to institute a suit regarding a possession of a property by the 31st of July 2013. He filed a suit on the 30th November 2013 . Rahul’s suit is clearly barred by limitation. Rahul’s right to property has been: 

A.) Extinguished 

B.) Not extinguished 

C.) Temporarily extinguished 

D.) None of the above 

97.) Audi alteram partem means: 

A.) Supremacy of Law 

B.) No person should be condemned unheard 

C.) Both a and b 

D.) None of the above 

98.) The expression ‘Rule of Law’ was used by: 

A.) A.V Dicey 

B.) Emmanuel Kant 

C.) Professor Ullman 

D.) None of the above 

99.) CAT stands for: 

A.) Central Authority Tribunal 

B.) Central Administrative Tribunal 

C.) Central Adjudicatory Tribunal 

D.) None of the above 

100.) Central Vigilance Commission checks up on the corruption by: 

A.) Judge 

B.) Minister 

C.) Public Servants 

D.) None of the above 

Answer Key

1.) D 2.) C 3.) A 4.) B 5.) D 6.) A 7.) B 8.) D 9.) A 10.) D 11.) A 12.) D 13.) B 14.) B 15.) A 16.) B 17.) C 18.) A 19.) B 20.) D 21.) D 22.) C 23.) C 24.) A 25.) D 26.) D 27.) C 28.) A 29.) D 30.) B 31.) B 32.) C 33.) C 34.) B 35.) B 36.) B 37.) B 38.) B 39.) A 40.) D 41.) B 42.) D 43.) B 44.) A 45.) B 46.) C 47.) B 48.) D 49.) B 50.) B 51.) C 52.) B 53.) 54.) C 55.) D 56.) B 57.) A 58.) B 59.) D 60.) A 61.) D 62.) D 63.) C 64.) C 65.) B 66.) D 67.) D 68.) D 69.) A 70.) D 71.) A 72.) 73.) C 74.) D 75.) B 76.) D 77.) D 78.) C 79.) C 80.) D 81.) A 82.) D 83.) D 84.) C 85.) D 86.) C 87.) C 88.) D 89.) D 90.) B 91.) D 92.) D 93.) B 94.) B 95.) A 96.) B 97.) B 98.) A 99.) B 100.) C 


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