AIBE: Mock test 5, Solve the Mock Test to strengthen your Preparation for All India Bar Exam and increase your chances of clearing the paper.
Mock TestÂ
1.) State practice for the formation of the customary rule includes 1. State Action 2. State claimsÂ
A.) only 1Â
B.) only 2Â
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) neither 1 nor 2Â
2.) The controller certifying authorities in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records. 1. Certifying authority 2. Cross certifying authority 3. Foreign Certifying authorityÂ
A.) 1 and 2Â
B.) 2 and 3Â
C.) 3 and 1Â
D.) 1,2 and 3Â
3.) Under section 37 of the IT Act, the certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certificate if-: 1.the subscriber is found guilty of malpractice, 2-: the subscriber is involved in cyber-terrorism, 3-: the subscriber request for the same, 4-: in public interestÂ
A.) 1 and 2Â
B.) 2 and 3Â
C.) 3 and 4Â
D.) 4 and 1Â
4.) In the cases before cyber appellant tribunal, the appellant-
A.) Cannot appear in person without a legal practitionerÂ
B.) cannot authorize a legal practitioner to appear on his behalfÂ
C.) cannot authorize his officer to appear on his behalfÂ
D.) cannot authorize his relatives who is neither his officer nor a legal practitioner to appear on his behalfÂ
5.) In the light of the criminal amendment Act,2013, which of the following is not correct-
A.) the word rape in section 375 of indian penal code,1890 has been replaced with sexual assault.Â
B.) rape is now gender neutral offenceÂ
C.) the amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 16 yearsÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
6.) The offence of stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is-
A.) non cognizable and bailableÂ
B.) cognizable and bailableÂ
C.) cognizable and non bailableÂ
D.) non cognizable and non bailableÂ
7.) In kidnapping the consent of minor is-
A.) wholly immaterialÂ
B.) partly immaterialÂ
C.) wholly materialÂ
D.) partly materialÂ
8.) Under the provisions of the trade union Act,1926 any person who has attained the age of…. may be a member of a registered trade union subject to any rules of trade union to the contract-
A.) 14 yearsÂ
B.) 15 yearsÂ
C.) 18 yearsÂ
D.) 21 yearsÂ
9.) Spurious goods under the provisions of the consumer protection Act 1989 imply-Â
A.) such goods and services which are of poor qualityÂ
B.) such goods and services which are claimed to be genuine but they are actually not soÂ
C.) such goods and services which might be stolen in natureÂ
D.) such goods and services which are not usable in natureÂ
10.) Who is liable to pay compensation in cases of death or permanent disablement?Â
A.) owner of the vehicleÂ
B.) state governmentÂ
C.) driverÂ
D.) insurance companyÂ
11.) Indian Evidence Act applies to-
A.) proceeding before tribunalsÂ
B.) proceeding before the arbitratorÂ
C.) judicial proceeding in courtÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
12.) Fact in issue means-
A.) fact existence or non existence of which is admitted by the partyÂ
B.) fact, existence or non existence of which is disputed by the partiesÂ
C.) fact, existence or non existence of which is not disputed by the partiesÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
13.) In a bailable offence bail is granted as a matter of right-
A.) by the police officerÂ
B.) by the courtÂ
C.) both by the police officer and the courtÂ
D.) either 1 or 2Â
14.) The conciliation proceedings______Â
A.) can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedingÂ
B.) can be used as evidence only in arbitral prpceedingÂ
C.) cam be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or the arbitratorÂ
D.) cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedingsÂ
15.) The serious fraud investigation officeÂ
A.) takes up cases suo mottoÂ
B.) takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concernedÂ
C.) takes up cases for investigation referred to it by central governmentÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
16.) Directive principles are ________
A.) justifiable as fundamental rightÂ
B.) justifiable but not as fundamental rightÂ
C.) decorative portions of indian constitutionÂ
D.) not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the countryÂ
17.) Who has the power to dissolve the lok sabha ?
A.) presidentÂ
B.) prime ministerÂ
C.) speaker of lok saÂ
D.) council of ministersÂ
18.) An amendment of the contitution can be initiated by introduction of bill for such purpose inÂ
A.) council in statesÂ
B.) house of peopleÂ
C.) either in council of states or house of peopleÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
19.) The india independence Act,1947 came into force –
A.) 1947-07-18Â
B.) 1947-08-14Â
C.) 1947-06-03Â
D.) 1947-07-26Â
20.) Sovereignty under constitution belongs to-Â
A.) the presidentÂ
B.) the parliamentÂ
C.) the peopleÂ
D.) the executive, judiciary and legislativeÂ
21.) Expression socialist in the preamble has been added by taking the view ofÂ
A.) Marx and LaskiÂ
B.) Marx and GandhiÂ
C.) Rousseau and GandhiÂ
D.) Gandhi and HegelÂ
22.) Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National congress after the failure of the-
A.) Cripps missionÂ
B.) August offerÂ
C.) Wavell planÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
23.) The first session of the constituent Assembly was held onÂ
A.) 1946-12-09Â
B.) 1949-11-26Â
C.) 1947-08-15Â
D.) 1946-01-26Â
24.) The indian constitution has borrowed the ideas of preamble fromÂ
A.) Italian constitutionÂ
B.) Canadian constitutionÂ
C.) French constitutionÂ
D.) Constitution of USAÂ
25.) The president of the constituent Assembly wasÂ
A.) Jawaharlal NehruÂ
B.) Jai prakash narayanÂ
C.) C. RajgopalachariÂ
D.) Dr. Rajendra prasadÂ
26.) Which of the following Articles of constitution of india provides freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religionÂ
A.) Article 25Â
B.) Article 27Â
C.) Article 28Â
D.) none of the aboveÂ
27.) The service of a priest can be regulated underÂ
A.) Article 24Â
B.) Article 23Â
C.) Article 25(2)Â
D.) none of the aboveÂ
28.) The directive principles are aimed atÂ
A.) securing political freedomÂ
B.) securing social and economic freedom by appropriate actionÂ
C.) executive supremacyÂ
D.) judiciary supremacyÂ
29.) Fundamental duties are enshrined inÂ
A.) part IV, Article 51Â
B.) part IV , Article 51AÂ
C.) part IV A , Article 51Â
D.) part IV A , Article 51 AÂ
30.) The power of declaring any community as schedule caste or schedule tribes is withÂ
A.) ParliamentÂ
B.) Home ministerÂ
C.) President of IndiaÂ
D.) Chairman of SC/ST CommisionÂ
31.) The power of president of India to issue ordinance is aÂ
A.) executive powerÂ
B.) legislative powerÂ
C.) constituent powerÂ
D.) quasi judicial powerÂ
32.) The council of ministers are selected byÂ
A.) speaker of lok sabhaÂ
B.) prime ministerÂ
C.) PresidentÂ
D.) vice presidentÂ
33.) Representtation of House of People is based onÂ
A.) Area of the stateÂ
B.) populationÂ
C.) communityÂ
D.) literacy rateÂ
34.) Money bill can beÂ
A.) invalid by Rajya sabhaÂ
B.) invalid by both the housesÂ
C.) Rajya sabha can reject the money billÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
35.) The supreme court struck down a part of the preventive detention Act in the caseÂ
A.) Gopalan caseÂ
B.) Golaknath caseÂ
C.) Ramesh Thappar caseÂ
D.) Kochunni caseÂ
36.) A retired judge of high court cannotÂ
A.) practice in the supreme courtÂ
B.) practice in any other High court in IndiaÂ
C.) practice in the High court from where he has retiredÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
37.) Indian constitution reserves the residuary power toÂ
A.) unionÂ
B.) statesÂ
C.) parliamentÂ
D.) presidentÂ
38.) The proclamation of emergency at the first instance can be restricted toÂ
A.) 3 monthsÂ
B.) 15 daysÂ
C.) 6 monthsÂ
D.) 60 daysÂ
39.) Which of the following are included in the concept of “state” under Article 12Â
A.) Railway board and electricity boardÂ
B.) judiciaryÂ
C.) universityÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
40.) The word procedure established by law in Article 21 isÂ
A.) that due process of law must be followedÂ
B.) A procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authorityÂ
C.) the same thing as a due process of lawÂ
D.) a law which is reasonable, just and fairÂ
41.) Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under order 1, rule 13 of CPCÂ
A.) can be taken at any stage of the proceedingsÂ
B.) should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalidÂ
C.) can be taken in appeal or revision for the first timeÂ
D.) either 1or 3Â
42.) objection as to the place of suingÂ
A.) can only be taken before the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunityÂ
B.) can also be taken before the appellate court for the first timeÂ
C.) can also be taken before the court of revision for the first timeÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
43.) On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order XXXII, rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to beÂ
A.) stayedÂ
B.) dismissedÂ
C.) rejectedÂ
D.) either 1, 2 or 3Â
44.) In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?Â
A.) CERT-inÂ
B.) MCIIPCÂ
C.) C-DAYÂ
D.) Ministry of ITÂ
45.) The right to private defence isÂ
A.) available under all circumstancesÂ
B.) available when there is time to have recourse to the protection of public authoritiesÂ
C.) available when there is no time to have recourse of public authoritiesÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
46.) which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provision of the Industrial Disputes Act,1947?Â
A.) termination due to ill healthÂ
B.) abondonment of job byan employeeÂ
C.) termination on account of reaching the age of superannuationÂ
D.) none of theseÂ
47.) Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provision of section 14(3) of the child labour (prohibition and regulation) Act,1986.Â
A.) it may extend to one yearÂ
B.) it may extend to two years.Â
C.) it may extend to six monthsÂ
D.) it may extend to one monthÂ
48.) Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawl from the society of the other is onÂ
A.) petitionerÂ
B.) respondentÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) either 1 or 2Â
49.) A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearanceÂ
A.) within 6 months of attachmentÂ
B.) within 2 years of attachmentÂ
C.) within 3 years of attachmentÂ
D.) within 1 year of attachmentÂ
50.) The question whether a statement was recorded in the course of investigation is aÂ
A.) question of lawÂ
B.) question of factÂ
C.) mixed question of law and factÂ
D.) question of law or of fact depends on facts and circumstancesÂ
51.) Where the police submit a final report under the section 173(2) of the Cr.P.C for dropping of proceeding to a magistrate,the magistrate?Â
A.) may accept the sameÂ
B.) may reject the sameÂ
C.) may reject the same and order further investigationÂ
D.) any of the aboveÂ
52.) The order under section 125 of cr.pc areÂ
A.) summary in nature but finally determine the rights and the obligation of the partyÂ
B.) summary in nature and do not finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties which are to be finally determine by the civil court.Â
C.) substantive in nature and finally determine the rights and obligations of the party.Â
D.) substantive in nature and are not subject to determination of a right of a party by civil court.Â
53.) A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain events not happening within a fixed time under section 35Â
A.) remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed timeÂ
B.) becomes void at the expiration of the time fixedÂ
C.) becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time fixedÂ
D.) both 1 and 3Â
54.) which among the following is authorised under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of sections 14 and 15 of the Act.Â
A.) central governmentÂ
B.) state governmentÂ
C.) certifying authorityÂ
D.) issuing authorityÂ
55.) The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are-(1) when one owes a duty of care towards the other. (2) when one commits a breach of that duty and. (3) the other persons suffers damages as a consequence thereof. choose correct response for below.Â
A.) none of them are essential ingredientÂ
B.) only the first is an essential ingredientÂ
C.) all of them are essential ingredientÂ
D.) even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed.Â
56.) vicarious liability includesÂ
A.) liability of the principle for the tort of his agentÂ
B.) liability of the master for the tort of his servantÂ
C.) liability of the partners for each others tortÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
57.) Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statementÂ
A.) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidenceÂ
B.) is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expensesÂ
C.) is a person who cannot be foundÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
58.) secondary evidence of a document meansÂ
A.) copies of the documentÂ
B.) oral account of the contents of the documentsÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) none of theseÂ
59.) A will required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witnessÂ
A.) when it is registeredÂ
B.) when it is unregisteredÂ
C.) when it is admittedÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
60.) Any person in section 106 of Evidence Act refers toÂ
A.) a party to the suitÂ
B.) a stranger to the suitÂ
C.) a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suitÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
61.) In a cognizable case under IPC, police have theÂ
A.) authority to arrest a person without warrantÂ
B.) authority to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrateÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) either 1 or 2Â
62.) During the investigation a search can be conducted without a warrant byÂ
A.) any police officerÂ
B.) by the investigating officerÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) either 1 or 2Â
63.) Committal proceedings under section 209 of Cr PC are in the nature ofÂ
A.) aid in the investigationÂ
B.) inquiryÂ
C.) trialÂ
D.) either inquiry or trialÂ
64.) which is correctÂ
A.) proposal+acceptance=promiseÂ
B.) promise+consideration=agreementÂ
C.) agreement+enforceability=contractÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
65.) communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposerÂ
A.) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposerÂ
B.) when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptorÂ
C.) when acceptance is communicated to the proposerÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
66.) in case of a general offer, for a valid contractÂ
A.) the acceptor need not have the knowledge of the offerÂ
B.) the acceptor need not have the knowledge of the offer before acceptance by performanceÂ
C.) the acceptor may require the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition for acceptanceÂ
D.) knowledge does not matter so long as the condition is performed with or without knowledgeÂ
67.) under the provision of the transfer of property Act, 1882 the unborn person aquires vested interest on transfer for his benefitÂ
A.) upon his birthÂ
B.) 7 days after his birthÂ
C.) 12 days after his birthÂ
D.) no such provision is madeÂ
68.) Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidableÂ
A.) at the option of the creditor so defeated or delayedÂ
B.) at the option of the debtorÂ
C.) at the option of courtÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
69.) where co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each isÂ
A.) not jointly are severally liable to the decree-holderÂ
B.) jointly and severally liable to the decree-holderÂ
C.) jointly liable to the decree-holder onlyÂ
D.) severally liable to the decree-holder onlyÂ
70.) At sight under section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.1881 meansÂ
A.) on presentationÂ
B.) on demandÂ
C.) on coming into visionÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
71.) Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to-:Â
A.) suitsÂ
B.) executionÂ
C.) election petitionsÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
72.) which of the following companies will have to constitute the corporate social responsibility committee under the Companies Act,2013Â
A.) A company having a net profit of 2.5 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 800 crores.Â
B.) A company having a net profit of 3 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 600 crores.Â
C.) A company having a net profit of 5 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 1000 crore and more.Â
D.) A company having a net profit of 5 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 5000 crores or moreÂ
73.) A disqualified person/heirÂ
A.) Transmit an interest to his or her own heirÂ
B.) transmits no interest to his or her own heirÂ
C.) may or may not transmit an interest to his or her own heir as per the discretion of the court.Â
D.) may only transmit an interest to his or her own heir with the consent of the other heirÂ
74.) in cases in which a specific act confers a discretionary power on an authority.Â
A.) The court can direct the manner in which the power is exercisedÂ
B.) the court can direct that the power be exercised in accordance with lawÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) neither 1 or 2Â
75.) The bar council of India rule which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates were struck down by the supreme court inÂ
A.) in E.S. Reddi V. Bar Council of IndiaÂ
B.) Indian council of legal aid and advise V. Bar Council of India.Â
C.) P. Shanmugam v. Bar Council of IndiaÂ
D.) Legal committee V. Bar Council of IndiaÂ
76.) Which is an incorrect statementÂ
A.) an arbitral award is a contractÂ
B.) an arbitral award must be in writing and signedÂ
C.) an arbitral award included an interim awardÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
77.) Which of the following statement holds true for adjudication bodiesÂ
A.) Doctrine of stare decisis applies to themÂ
B.) doctrine of res judicata does not apply to themÂ
C.) inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the partiesÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
78.) The supreme court held in v.c Rangadurai V. D.Gopalan an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time thatÂ
A.) he appreciates the insignificance of his derelictionÂ
B.) he has lived a consistent life of poverty and intergrityÂ
C.) he possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealingsÂ
D.) the burden is on the applicant to establish that he entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions.Â
79.) The present Arbitration and conciliation Act of 1996 is based onÂ
A.) constitution of indiaÂ
B.) supreme court of india guidelinesÂ
C.) European commercial Arbitration procedureÂ
D.) UNCITRALÂ
80.) Who among the following is authorised to issued regulation regarding shelf prospectusÂ
A.) SEBIÂ
B.) Central governmentÂ
C.) company law boardÂ
D.) National company law tribunalÂ
81.) Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act,1927Â
A.) RamsÂ
B.) kidsÂ
C.) kittenÂ
D.) none of theseÂ
82.) The provision of the arbitration and conciliation Act of 1996 have to be interpreted being influenced by the principle underlying the 1940 Act. this observation was laid down inÂ
A.) M.M.T.C ltd. v. Sterlite industries (India) ltd.Â
B.) Sunderam finance ltd. v. N.E.P.C ltdÂ
C.) olympus superstructure pvt. ltd. v. meera vijyaÂ
D.) orma impex pvt. Ltd. v. nissan pvt. ltd.Â
83.) which of the following services cannot be provided to the company by an author appointed under the provisions of the companies Act,2013Â
A.) internal auditÂ
B.) actuarial servicesÂ
C.) managerial servicesÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
84.) Under the wild life (protection) Act,1972 any person who teases an animal in a zoo maybe punishedÂ
A.) with fine which may extends to 5000Â
B.) with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 yearÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) neither 1 or 2Â
85.) The entry on forests and protection of wild animals and bird was moved from …to the… by the 42nd amendment to the constitution of the IndiaÂ
A.) centre list to state listÂ
B.) centre list to the concurrent listÂ
C.) state list to the concurrent listÂ
D.) state list to union listÂ
86.) Droit des gens (laws of nations)1758 was written byÂ
A.) Comelius van bynkershoekÂ
B.) Emerich de vattelÂ
C.) Richard zouchÂ
D.) Jean bodinÂ
87.) To establish section 34Â
A.) common interest must be proved but not overt act is required to be provedÂ
B.) common intention and overt act both are required to be provedÂ
C.) common intention needs not be proved but only overt act is required to be provedÂ
D.) all of the aboveÂ
88.) Under the provision of the industrial disputes Act,1947 the appropriate government can by order in writingÂ
A.) refer the dispute to a board for promoting a settlement of the disputeÂ
B.) refer any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to the dispute to the dispute to a court for inquiryÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) neither 1 or 2Â
89.) which of the following statements is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman ?Â
A.) even when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful, the court may not order reinstatement if the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position of trust and there was a loss of confidence.Â
B.) loss of confidence may also be a ground for discharge simpliciter of the work manÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) neither 1 or 2Â
90.) Under the provision of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation for filing a complaint before the national commision isÂ
A.) 1 year from the date on which causes of action has arisenÂ
B.) 2 year from the date on which causes of action has arisenÂ
C.) 3 year from the date on which causes of action has arisenÂ
D.) 4 year from the date on which causes of action has arisenÂ
91.) Grievous hurt under the motor vehicle Act,1988 meansÂ
A.) Grievous hurt as defined in ipcÂ
B.) Grievous hurt as defined in medical lawsÂ
C.) Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitionerÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
92.) A retracted confessionÂ
A.) can be solely made the basis of convictionÂ
B.) cannot be solely made the basis of convictionÂ
C.) cannot be solely made the basis of conviction unless the same is corroboratedÂ
D.) both a and c are correctÂ
93.) A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of the actÂ
A.) must relate to the same crime for which the offender is chargedÂ
B.) may relate to the same crime for which the offender is chargedÂ
C.) must relate to another crimeÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
94.) An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigation officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witnessÂ
A.) unreliableÂ
B.) inadmissibleÂ
C.) inadmissible and unreliableÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
95.) Recording of pre summoning evidence may be dispensed with under section 200 of Cr.p cÂ
A.) if the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainantÂ
B.) if the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official dutiesÂ
C.) both 1 and 2Â
D.) only 1 is correctÂ
96.) contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection isÂ
A.) voidÂ
B.) reasonableÂ
C.) validÂ
D.) unenforceableÂ
97.) Under the transfer of property Act,1882Â
A.) the salary of a public officer can be transferredÂ
B.) the salary of a public officer cannot be transferredÂ
C.) public officer can be transferredÂ
D.) none of the aboveÂ
98.) where a debt is transferred for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt, the debt so transferred, if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee is applicable first,in payment of the cost of such recovery . this is the provision ofÂ
A.) mortgaged debtÂ
B.) giftÂ
C.) actionable claimÂ
D.) leaseÂ
99.) A suit is under section 6 of the specific relief Act can be brought byÂ
A.) trespasserÂ
B.) a tenant holding overÂ
C.) servantÂ
D.) managerÂ
100.) Injunction cannot be granted in a suitÂ
A.) in which the specific performance cannot enforcedÂ
B.) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific contractÂ
C.) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possessionÂ
D.) neither 1, nor 2, nor 3Â
AnswersÂ
1.) C 2.) D 3.) C 4.) D 5.) D 6.) C 7.) A 8.) B 9.) B 10.) A 11.) C 12.) B 13.) C 14.) D 15.) C 16.) D 17.) A 18.) C 19.) A 20.) C 21.) B 22.) A 23.) A 24.) D 25.) D 26.) B 27.) C 28.) B 29.) D 30.) A 31.) B 32.) B 33.) B 34.) D 35.) A 36.) C 37.) C 38.) C 39.) D 40.) A 41.) B 42.) D 43.) A 44.) D 45.) C 46.) D 47.) D 48.) A 49.) B 50.) B 51.) D 52.) B 53.) D 54.) A 55.) D 56.) D 57.) D 58.) C 59.) A 60.) A 61.) C 62.) C 63.) B 64.) D 65.) B 66.) B 67.) A 68.) A 69.) B 70.) B 71.) A 72.) C 73.) C 74.) B 75.) C 76.) D 77.) C 78.) C 79.) D 80.) A 81.) C 82.) B 83.) A 84.) D 85.) C 86.) B 87.) B 88.) C 89.) C 90.) B 91.) A 92.) C 93.) D 94.) D 95.) C 96.) C 97.) B 98.) A 99.) B 100.) AÂ
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