Less than 35% of businesses started in the US in March 2013 and lasted until March 2023. It is very concerning since a lot of these businesses help in building a nation. Small businesses are the backbone of a country. According to the Small Business Administration, they have created around 13 million jobs in the U.S. over the past 25 years. They also contribute to almost half of the GDP in the US. While these businesses play a vital role in building the economy, many struggle due to preventable issues. One such issue is poorly drafted contracts. In this article, let us try to understand how agreements and clauses will help grow and secure small businesses.
Common contractual problems faced by small businesses
The following are the common contractual problems faced by small businesses:
Complex legal jargon: There can’t be a proper meeting of minds if they don’t specify what all are included in the term meaning. This can lead to misunderstandings.
Inefficient termination clause: Many small businesses focus on growing their business rather than this clause, thinking it to be unnecessary and expensive. So, they neglect this clause or avoid it, thinking that nothing will happen. But in the future, it creates issues within the business when there is a breach of the contract or when unforeseeable events happen.
Inadequate confidentiality provisions: A lot of times, small businesses have faced their trade secrets being exploited by their team, and their business has started to fail.
Payment disputes: The lack of clear details regarding payment can raise different issues, such as financial instability and cash flow problems. This might cause a delay in the payment process. Also, in case of a default of the payment, they might not know what to do next.
Absence clause: In the early stages of a business, the employees may leave their company due to a lack of resources or funds. But they may not stop them from using the confidential information they obtained from this business for their own gains later. They could start another competing business or maybe join another competing business. This may affect the small businesses badly.
Inadequate confidentiality provisions: A lot of times, small businesses have faced their trade secrets being exploited by their own team, and their business has started to fail.
Unclear ownership and responsibilities among founders or shareholders can lead to conflicts and potential business dissolution.
Employee disputes arise due to misunderstandings about job roles, compensation, and expectations.
Sharing sensitive information without protection can result in data leaks and loss of competitive advantage.
Ambiguities in service terms can lead to disagreements between the business and clients or vendors.
Businesses face unexpected rent hikes or evictions without a clear lease agreement.
IP theft or misuse occurs without an agreement protecting intellectual property.
Payment disputes: The lack of clear details regarding payment can raise different issues, such as financial instability and cash flow problems. This might cause a delay in the payment process. Also, in case of a default of the payment, they may not know what to do next.
IPR infringement: Small businesses tend to neglect this clause, which may later affect proprietary information and innovation of theirs.
Absence of ADR involvement: Even in small businesses, there can be serious disputes among the parties. Small businesses may avoid this clause thinking that their business won’t be facing any disputes within itself. This will lead to expensive and prolonged litigation, which might not be good for both parties.
Lack of clear obligations: In small businesses, they might be having trouble assigning roles. This would create confusion among the parties, which would lead to the breach of the contract.
Strategies for risk mitigation
These issues can be addressed by ensuring that agreements are made between the parties and by incorporating essential and effective clauses.
Important Clauses
Although it’s difficult to avoid these problems, we can take some measures by including some specific clauses in the contract and also including some essentials of each clause. Here, it is noteworthy to mention some of the clauses with reference to the problems that we have discussed:
Be specific about the meaning of a specific term: It is necessary to have definition clauses in every contract, where they should include the definitions of every term that might have more than one meaning and also might confuse one if the term meaning is not specified. They should also interpret the terms for easier understanding. For example, if we mention premises in a contract, the other party may not know which premises the contract is specifying, so they will be confused. The term might also have multiple meanings under them.
The small businesses can ensure that they draft a proper termination clause that includes the conditions that can terminate the contract. Special provision to terminate the contract even if there is no reason for doing it. Specify which all breaches of the contract can lead to the termination. Mandatory notice period to terminate the contract.
A strong confidentiality clause can ensure the protection of their business. They should include all the information shared between the parties in this clause and the obligations both parties have to protect this information.
Specify what will be the remedies for breach of the confidentiality clause, such as specific performance
Clearly define payment: It must include how much the amount is, acceptable payment methods, whether it’s a one-time payment or instalments, an annexure giving the complete payment schedule, and which currency will be used if the parties are from different countries.
Default charges: They should include how much interest will come if they default on the payment or any other remedies that can compensate for the default of the payments.
Non-compete clauses can help small businesses avoid risking their trade secrets to their previous employees against them in the future. This clause includes the time period until which the noncompete clause will exist after the employee leaves their current owner and specifies any areas where they can’t start any business after leaving.
By providing an IPR clause in the agreement, they can protect their IPR rights from getting infringed. This clause should include
What all are IP under this contract?
What IPRs are they given license to use during the course of the contract?
What IPRs are they not given?
Remedies if the IPR is infringed.
A dispute resolution clause in a contract helps both parties choose a more cost-effective and faster mode to resolve a problem. This clause includes Specifies resolution methods, procedure, the language and place, and the time frame within which the resolution should take place; otherwise, it would terminate the contract and the governing law.
A proper and clear obligation clause specifying the roles and responsibilities will definitely help in building the meeting of minds and also avoid the contract from getting breached.
The obligation clause must contain what, who is responsible, where, how, and when obligations should be fulfilled.
Consulting legal experts may be a good option to ensure that the contract does not have any loopholes by which it might become invalid. There are platforms where contract drafting and reviewing freelancers are available with enough experience. This will help them get their business secure in a more cost-effective manner.
Continuously review and monitor contract performance to ensure all parties meet their obligations. This approach helps identify and address issues early.
Clear and Specific Titles: It should be specific and reflective of the agreement’s nature and purpose. For instance, using an “exclusive distribution agreement” instead of a generic “service agreement” ensures clarity.
Detailed Parties Information: Clearly identify all parties involved in the contract, including their full names, addresses, and legal capacities. This ensures that there is no ambiguity about who the contracting parties are.
Representations and warranties: Include representations and warranties to assert the facts on which the agreement is based. This provides a basis for recourse if any party makes false claims.
Agreements as legal protections
Partnership or Shareholder Agreement: This agreement outlines roles, responsibilities, and ownership percentages, preventing conflicts. (Key elements: ownership stakes, roles, decision-making, exit strategies)
Employment Agreement: This contract defines the employer-employee relationship, detailing job roles, responsibilities, compensation, and terms of employment. (Key elements: job description, salary, benefits, termination conditions)
Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA): An NDA ensures confidential information shared with third parties remains protected. (Key elements: definition of confidential information, obligations of the receiving party, duration of confidentiality)
Service Agreement: This agreement sets the terms for services provided by the business or by vendors to the business. (Key elements: scope of services, payment terms, duration, termination conditions)
Lease Agreement: A lease agreement outlines the terms for renting commercial property, including rent amount, lease duration, and renewal/termination conditions. (Key elements: rent, lease term, maintenance responsibilities, termination clauses)
Intellectual Property (IP) Agreement: This agreement protects the business’s intellectual property, ensuring ownership of creations or inventions. (Key elements: definition of IP, ownership rights, usage terms, protection measures).
Conclusion
Don’t underestimate the power of a good contract for your small business! It’s like having a clear roadmap that prevents misunderstandings and protects your interests. By laying out everyone’s roles, responsibilities, and expectations upfront, you can avoid problems down the road and keep your business running smoothly.
Strong contracts also help ensure you get paid on time and safeguard your valuable ideas. Considering a chat with a lawyer can make your contracts even more bulletproof, giving your small business the best foundation for long-term success.
This article is written by Gargi Lad. The article provides a detailed analysis of the landmark judgement of PepsiCo India Holdings Private Ltd. vs. Union of India (2024). It further elaborates on the facts of the case, issues and arguments presented by both parties. Subsequently, it also talks about the rationale behind the judgement.
Table of Contents
Introduction
An amendment is brought into any law that requires some changes to make the law more relevant. Amendments are a way to provide for a better statute or a set of rules that are of higher quality than the existing rules or laws. The Rules of Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) were amended in 2006 for a similar purpose. The amendment was brought in to provide a better set of rules that would be highly effective and would provide stricter guidelines. The rules would be mandatory for every manufacturer to ensure the smooth running of business and industry, along with ensuring that the manufacturer is practising fair trade. In an industry where people often resort to unfair means to establish trade and gain quick profit, it is the guidelines that keep them on track and within the purview of the judiciary and refrain them from utilising unfair means.
The laws and provisions are made to ensure the safety of the public through a good quality supply of goods by the manufacturers, hence, when huge companies default on following the guidelines, they are often not exempt, as it’s the public and their faith that are at stake. This case is a similar example of when a huge company with high turnover and a wide supply chain defaults on abiding by the rules that are laid down by the law. This case also provides an in-depth insight into the intricacies of compliance and aims to highlight the notability and value of clear and unambiguous statutory provisions concerned with the packaging of goods and consumer protection.
The petitioner company, Pepsi Co. India Holdings Private Ltd., was incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956. It manufactures and supplies non-alcoholic carbonated beverages, packaged edibles and water through different distribution channels to its customers.
On 12th of January, 2007 the central government issued certain guidelines to implement the rules that were introduced in 1977. The Central Government wanted that efforts be made to spread awareness about the new amendments amongst all retailers, wholesalers and manufacturers. Further, in the guidelines that were issued, the government was of the opinion that investigational surveys can be taken as initial steps. After these surveys have been conducted, the concerned authorities have to be informed in the case of any deficiencies that have been noticed. The government was of the view that such investigational surveys will help the manufacturers and give them an opportunity to have appropriate weighing units and also to update their label declarations on packages. Further, it was mentioned that such surveys should continue to take place until the 30th of April, 2007.
Along with this, manufacturers were also allowed to affix their individual stickers declaring all the details of the consumer care cell so that they could utilise the existing packaging materials up to the 30th of June, 2007.
It was submitted by the respondents that seven notices were sent to the petitioner on 25th June 2007, 3rd July 2007, 4th July 2007, 5th July 2007, 9th July 2007, 31st July 2007 and 1st August 2007 because the provisions that have been given under Rule 6(1)(a) of the Rules that were brought in 1977 were being violated by the petitioners. The petitioner, through these notices, was informed of the contravention of Rule 6(1)(a) of the 1977 Rules and Section 39 and Section 33 of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act 1976 as well.
Thereafter, the Inspector, Legal Metrology, Hindupur, issued proceedings on 12th October 2007 against the company for noncompliance. Another notice was also issued to the petitioner on 18th October 2007 in which Inspector, Legal Metrology, Nalgonda informed the petitioner that for offences committed under Section 51 and Section 63 of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act 1976 and also under Rule 39 of the Rules of 1977, a case was registered against the petitioner under Section 72 of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act 1976 on 25th June 2007. According to Section 72, the case shall be tried in front of a magistrate and the maximum punishment shall be one year.
An interim order on 1st May, 2008 was issued by the bench of this court, which granted an interim stay on all further proceedings.
Facts of the case
In the present case, the petitioner, which is a company that manufactures non-alcoholic carbonated beverages, packaged drinking water and edibles, used packaged material prior to 31st December 2007. The respondent was of the opinion that the petitioner had violated Rule 6(1)(a) of the Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Amendment Rules 2006 and wanted to initiate proceedings for prosecution against the petitioner company. The action that was taken by the respondent was on the grounds that the petitioner has been continuously negligent and hasn’t been complying with guidelines, even after numerous reminders were sent to him.
Even after the guidelines that were issued, PepsiCo allegedly did not comply with Rule 6(1)(a) and hence legal action was initiated against them. In response, a writ petition was filed by PepsiCo to seek exemption with regards to packaging requirements in the Telangana High Court. In order to support its argument, PepsiCo cited previous permissions that were given to them for using stickers and also the transition guidelines of the government. They also sought directions to be given to the respondents regarding abstaining from taking any action against the petitioner for packaging material used prior to 31st of December, 2007. Such material was used in consonance with Central Government directions dated 5th July 2007.
Issue raised
Whether or not the action of the respondents in initiating proceedings is arbitrary and unconstitutional?
Arguments of the parties
Petitioners
The petitioner had argued that the notices that were given to the petitioner company and the prosecution that was initiated have no sanctity as the petitioner company has been exempted from complying with Rule 6(1)(a) of the 1977 Rules. The petitioner prayed that the respondent should be directed not to proceed with any further action against the petitioner for non-compliance with the Rules of 1977.
Respondent
The respondent was of the opinion that the argument made by the petitioner regarding the exemption of the petitioner company from complying with the 1977 Rules is not valid as the notifications that have been issued by the Central Government are guidelines and do not have any statutory sanction. They further contended that the petitioner has a misconceived notion that he is being exempted from the same, and he shall be told to comply with the Rules.
Laws involved in PepsiCo India Holdings Private Ltd. vs. Union of India (2024)
Article 226
This article is provided under Part V of the Indian Constitution. Article 226 of the Indian Constitution gives the High Court powers to issue writs to protect the rights of citizens. It provides for protection against actions of the state that lead to violations of the fundamental or legal rights of the people.
Article 226 deals with all kinds of rights and does not limit itself to only fundamental rights. This article is a remedy for an infringement of the rights of any individual residing in India. The article grants the High Court the power to provide remedy to the person aggrieved against anyone. Here, the aggrieved can seek remedy for infringement against a person or even an authority like the government.
The right to constitutional remedies as guaranteed under Article 32 itself is a right, and hence a writ petition arising out of a violation cannot be denied by the Apex Court. Under Article 32, only the aggrieved person, whose fundamental right is violated, can approach the Supreme Court and seek remedy for the violation.
The High Court has the power to issue five kinds of writs, namely:
Habeas Corpus: The writ of habeas corpus generally means “to have a body of.” This writ is issued to release a person who has been unlawfully detained or imprisoned. It is to be noted that this writ can be issued against public authorities and private individuals as well. One of the important criteria that needs to be fulfilled is that the detention that has taken place should be unlawful. When the writ of habeas corpus is issued, the court orders the person who has been detained before the court to examine the legality of his detention. This writ can also be filed by a stranger if it is in the public interest.
Quo Warranto: The literal meaning of this writ is “by what authority.” The writ of Quo Warranto is only filed against judicial and quasi judicial authorities. It is issued by the courts to call any person who is holding a public office in order to show under what authority the person holding such office is. This writ focuses on preventing any person from holding any public office, which he is not entitled to.
Mandamus: The literal meaning of the writ of mandamus is “We Command.” This writ is generally filed against a public body, an inferior court, a tribunal, the government and any corporation as well when they refuse to perform their duties. The writ of mandamus cannot be filed against a private individual. When the writ is issued, the public authority is ordered to resume its duties.
Certiorari: The meaning of certiorari is “to certify.” In a situation where a lower court has passed a judgement or has passed an order and the higher court feels that such an order is beyond the powers that have been given to the court or if they have committed an error of law, a writ of certiorari is filed. This writ can also be filed when the lower court has not followed the principles of natural justice.
Prohibition: This writ is usually issued by the Superior Courts to the inferior judicial bodies that are acting beyond their jurisdiction. The writ cannot be filed against legislative or private individuals. Rather, it is only issued against administrative, judicial and quasijudicial authorities. It is issued to prohibit the proceedings in a case that is still pending.
The petitioner in this case filed a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, questioning the validity of the proceedings filed by the respondents, stating that they are illegal and arbitrary in nature.
Rule 6(1)(a) of the Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Amendment Rules, 2006
The Rules of Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) were framed using the powers that have been granted to the Central Government by the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, to make rules in relation to the provisions of the same. This power to frame the rules has been granted under Section 83(1) of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976. Further, Section 83(2) of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, provides a list of matters for which the government has been given powers to make rules.
Rule 6 of the Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules deal with declarations that have to be made on every package. Rule 6(1)(a) specifically states that the name and address of the packer and the manufacturer/importer have to be mentioned on the package. If there is a separate entity for the manufacturer and packer, they both must have their names mentioned separately. Where there is no mention of who has manufactured or packed the specific product, it is assumed that the name and address specified on the package are those of the manufacturer and the person who packs. As per the 1977 Rules, when the packages contain food articles or edible materials instead of this clause, the requirements of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and the rules made for the same will apply.
Rule 2(h) of the 1977 Rules also gives the definition of manufacturer. A manufacturer is a person, a firm or a Hindu undivided family that manufactures or produces any packaged commodity and puts any mark on the said packaged commodity that is not produced or made by the person, claiming the commodity to be made or packaged by him. Further, the definition of packer was also given in Rule 2(k) of the 1977 Rules. A packer is considered to be a person who pre-packs any kind of commodity, wholesale or retail.
Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
This Act extends to the whole of India and was introduced to regulate interstate trade or other goods that are sold by weight and also to establish certain standards relating to measures and weights. This act was introduced to amend, upgrade and modernise the system of weights and measures and also to replace the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1956. The Central Government wanted to replace the 1956 Act in order to remove any deficiencies and also to bring the existing laws in line with international trends.
Section 33 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
According to this section, no person is allowed to issue any price list or any other document nor can he make an announcement regarding any charge or price for any good or service to which this part applies. They are also not allowed to express any quantity or dimensions nor can they publish any advertisements in relation to such goods and services. This can only be done when it is in accordance with the standard units of weights and measures.
Section 39 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
According to Section 39(1) of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, until and unless a packaged commodity has the identity of the commodity, the net quantity in accordance with the standard units of weight and measure, and the unit sale price and sale price of the package, no person is allowed to make, manufacture, deliver, sell or distribute such commodity. This section further lays down that the name and address of the manufacturer or packager should be given on the package. As per Clause (3) of this Section, every package should have a statement of the net quantity of each serving, in case the number of servings has been given on the package.
Also, Section 39(5) of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976 In case of any undue proliferation of measures or weights that would impair the ability of any consumer to make a comparative assessment of the prices, then the central government can instruct the manufacturer to distribute the commodity in accordance with such standard quantities. Any commodity that has been filled to less than the prescribed capacity cannot be sold or delivered by any person. This can only be allowed if it is proven that it was done to protect the contents of the package.
Section 51 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
This section lays down that, except if any change has been made for the correction of any error, if any person tampers with or changes the reference, secondary or working standard, they shall be punished with imprisonment, which can extend up to a period of two years. Further, a fine can also be imposed, which can extend to five thousand rupees.
Section 63 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
As per Section 63 of The Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, during any inter-state trade or commerce, any person who sells or delivers any packaged commodity that is not in accordance with the provisions that have been laid down under this Act or any rule that has been made for such implementation can be fined five thousand rupees or less, and for any subsequent offence, the person can be imprisoned up to five years.
Section 72 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
As per Section 72(a) of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, only when a complaint has been made by the Director or any person who is aggrieved or by any authorised officer can courts take cognisance of any offence for which the punishment has been given under this Act. Also, according to Section 72(c), an offence has to be tried summarily by a magistrate that is punishable under Section 50,Section 52,Section 53, Section 56, Section 58, Section 60, Section 61, Section 63, Section 64, Section 65, and Section 66 of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976. Also, if any person has been convicted of any offence that has been tried under this section, a sentence of imprisonment can be passed but such punishment should not exceed one year.
Section 83 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976
Section 83 of the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, grants power to the Central Government to make rules or bring in guidelines in order to carry out or enforce the provisions that have been laid down under the Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976. If required, the Central Government may also impose a fine, which can extend up to Rs. 2000 if there is any breach of the rules by the ones concerned (i.e., manufacturers and retailers) that has been made by the Central Government.
Further, a list has been given under Section 83(2) of the said Act on which the Central Government can make rules. Some of the matters on which rules can be made are:
Supplementary, derived or special units of weight and measure and standard symbols or definitions as prescribed by the General Conference on Weights and Measures.
Multiples and submultiples of physical constants and ratios or coefficients in relation to units of weight or measure
The manner in which the denomination of decimal multiples and submultiples shall be written.
Regarding periodical intervals in which certification of objects that have been mentioned under Section 16 in subsections 1 and 2 shall be done to check their accuracy.
The manner and condition in which an object or equipment, as per given under Section 15 and Section 16 of the Standard of Weights and Measures Act, 1976, shall be kept.
The manner and condition in which every reference standard, secondary standard or working standard shall be kept.
The place of verification and authentication of the above mentioned reference, secondary and working standard, and the manner in which such verification or authentication shall take place. Also, the authority that will conduct such verification and authentication.
Custody of the reference, secondary and working standards.
In relation to weights or measures, all the physical characteristics of materials and equipment, the performance of equipment and its configuration, tolerances, or anything related to methods or procedures of tests.
Maintaining registers and records by persons mentioned under Section 35;
Regarding the conditions under which non-standard weights or measures may be manufactured for export and any limitations or restrictions on the same.
If any of the commodities are subject to natural decay, determine the manner in which they should be disposed of.
Custody, under which every reference, working or secondary standard has to be kept.
Regarding which authority should approve the models and the number of models, drawings and other information that are to be submitted for approval of the model;
For the testing of a model, what are the prescribed conditions under which the testing is to be done
The manner in which the model’s number and certificate shall be written on every weight or measure
The manner in which the contents of a specific package have to be declared
Classes of weights and measures that fall under the first or second category
The capacity up to which a specific package is required to be filled
In the net contents of a packaged commodity, what are reasonable variations that may be due to the method of packing or ordinary exposure
How the special seal by which weights or measures of the first category shall be stamped
How are periodical returns submitted by every manufacturer, dealer or other person in a State
The manner, format and limitation of time for applications for inclusion of a name in the register of exporters and importers of weights and measures shall be made;
The registration period of an exporter or importer of weights or measures, and when shall it be renewed
The minimum qualifications for admission to the institute, the courses and curriculum, along with the period of training at the institute and the range of fees to be collected.
any other matter that is required to be, or may be, prescribed.
Judgement in PepsiCo India Holdings Private Ltd. vs. Union of India (2024)
The Court referred to Rule 6(1)(a) of the 1977 Rules, which states that the name, address, telephone number and email address of the person who can be contacted in case a consumer complaint comes up should be mentioned on every package by the manufacturer. The High Court was of the opinion that in order to exempt a manufacturer from a specific rule or act, the existence of a provision in the said act or rules should be there. However, in the present case, there is no mention of any provision under the 1977 Rules or the relevant act. The court further mentioned the guidelines that were issued by the government and stated that compliance had to be done with the said guidelines until April 30, 2007.
The Court stated that the provisions of the Act were amended, which was notified with effect from 17-7-2006 and therefore, the Central Government had issued guidelines to ensure a smooth transition in the implementation of the 1977 Rules, and by way of an amendment, new provisions were incorporated. Further, the guidelines only provided that efforts might be made to give wide publicity to the changes made in the 1977 Rules to spread awareness amongst manufacturers/wholesalers/retailers.
It was also stated in the guidelines that initial enforcement steps might only arise in investigational surveys and the deficiencies noticed should be brought to the notice of the manufacturer concerned so that they could update their label declarations and the seller might put in place appropriate weighing equipment. The said steps were directed to be taken till 30-4-2007 and it was expected that in the said initial period there would be no prosecution.
Hence, the order that was given on 12th January 2007 does not in any way exempt the petitioner from Rule 6(1)(a) of the 1977 Rules and the argument raised by the petitioner is not valid. The court disposed of the writ petition but also stated that in one of the cases, prosecution has already been launched against the petitioner. The Court directed the government authorities to keep in mind the guidelines issued by the Central Government when they deal with the notices that were given to the petitioner, to which the petitioner has responded.
Rationale behind this judgement
The court further observed that the guidelines that were issued by the government ought to be complied with until the 30th of April, 2007, after which they will face consequences.
The court looked into Rule 6(1)(a) of the 1977 Rules in order to decide whether the petitioner was liable to be exempted or not, but after a thorough reading of the rules, they opined that it does not in any way exempt the petitioner. The bench was quick to notice and decide that the order that was passed on 12th January 2007 is valid and the contentions of the petitioner are invalid.
Analysis of the case
This case of PepsiCo India Holdings Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India in relation to packaging and consumer protection highlights the importance of complying with the statutory provisions and also provides an understanding of the complexities of complying with different laws that have been laid down. The facts of this case and the judgement that was delivered also highlight the importance of protecting consumer interests and further highlight the legal consequences that one could face in case of non-compliance. The judgement that has been delivered by the Telangana High Court has clearly laid down that one cannot be exempted from the mandatory statutory requirements on the basis of guidelines. This case also lays importance on the fact that manufacturers should always be aware of the latest developments and should also majorly focus on complying with them.
Conclusion
This case has stood up, reflecting the need to practice fair trade and follow guidelines that are issued by the central government. It also demonstrates the consequences of non compliance with guidelines. It has been seen and upheld in varied cases that following the guidelines is important and necessary for upholding the principles of practising fair trade. In the judgement, it was said that all the procedures that are required for following the mandatory statutory guidelines have to be followed. Further, the judgement stated that the party has to work diligently towards meeting all the requirements and if any notice has been served, then it is the duty of the person to reply to the same. It has also been observed by the court that manufacturers and industries that operate on a larger scale often tend to disobey guidelines and not follow the protocols laid down in the statute. This can further lead to different issues.
For instance, in the above case, several notices were issued to the manufacturer because there was non-compliance on their behalf. And non compliance would often lead to legal proceedings, which, in reality, are more tedious than actual compliance with rules. The case holds importance for the consumer as it is their right to know what is in the product and hence the packaging should display the same. The guidelines that were issued by the Central Government were aimed at transparency between the packer/retailer and the consumer. Hence, when PepsiCo did not comply with the guidelines, they were sent notices and asked to comply with them. This case does not merely rely on fair trade practices but also on consumer protection and the rights of the consumer.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Why are declarations required for packaged commodities?
The declarations on any packaged item or commodity are a mandate to ensure that the product is of good quality and is from a trustworthy source. It is done to ensure the accurate handling of goods and to uphold the principles of fair trade practices.
Which rule did Pepsi Co. allegedly not comply with?
Pepsico. had allegedly violated Rule 6(1)(a) of the Standards of Weights and Measures (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 1977.
Why did the Central Government issue guidelines in 2007?
The Central Government had issued guidelines to implement the 1977 Rules and also to spread awareness about the said rules amongst manufacturers as to avoid further complications.
What does the judgement that has been delivered by the court highlight?
The judgement that has been given highlights the importance of complying with the rules and regulations for packaging that have been laid down. It also upholds consumer protection and welfare by keeping a strict eye on the manufacturers and having them within a purview bound by law.
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This article is written by Stuti Mehrotra. This article provides a comprehensive overview of the judgement delivered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India in special leave petition in Smt. Dipo vs. Wassan Singh. It deals with ownership and inheritance of the deceased whose property is in dispute, which became the main concern of the court. The article delves into determining the legal heir of the deceased, to decide whether the property was ancestral or not and the different laws of inheritance in context to customary laws.
Table of Contents
Introduction
The Law relating to intestate succession among Hindus is codified under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The act brought about changes in the Law of Succession among Hindus, granting women property rights that had been largely unknown for a long time. The property inherited by a Hindu from his two generations i.e., father’s father and father, is ancestral property. Property inherited from other relations is not ancestral property; it is separate property. The essential element of ancestral property is that if that person inheriting it has sons, grandsons, or great grandsons, they become joint owners with him.
This is a landmark case related to ancestral property rights under the Hindu Law. In this case, the Supreme Court of India reversed lower court decisions, ruling in favour of the plaintiff regarding property labelled as ancestral. It deals with ownership and inheritance of the deceased whose property was in dispute, which became the main concern of the court. The judges who passed the judgement were Hon’ble Justice Chinappa Reddy and Justice D.A. Desai.
Bench: Hon’ble Justice Chinappa Reddy and D.A. Desai
Court: Supreme Court of India
Referred: Inheritance of Property under Hindu Law
Facts of the case
The parties involved in this case were the plaintiff, Smt. Dipo, and the defendants, Wassan Singh and others. Another party was Bua Singh, the deceased whose property was in dispute. Bua Singh, passed away in 1952, and his numerous properties became a point of contention in court regarding their ownership and inheritance. The petitioner, who claimed to be the sister of Bua Singh, asserted that she was the closest heir to her late brother. She initiated legal action to reclaim the property (not ancestral) that belonged to her deceased brother, Bua Singh.
Smt. Dipo, the plaintiff, claimed the land, but her claims were challenged by the respondents, who claimed to be paternal uncle’s sons on two grounds:
The respondents questioned and disputed Smt. Dipo’s relationship with Bua Singh as a sister in the first part of their argument.
The respondents also claimed that they were the preferred heirs according to local customary laws, even if Smt. Dipo was considered as Bua Singh’s sister, because the entire piece of land was family property belonging to Bua Singh.
The Trial Court determined that even if some of the disputed properties were not ancestral, the majority of them were when Bua Singh owned them. It was also ruled that Smt. Dipo was entitled to inherit only Bua Singh’s non-ancestral property, citing a custom that barred sisters from inheriting ancestral property in favour of collaterals.
The appellant here was dissatisfied with the Trial Court’s decision, therefore, Smt. Dipo filed an appeal with the District Judge in Amritsar, intending to present it in forma pauperis. However, the appeal was rejected by the District Court Judge because Smt. Dipo failed to present it personally as required by Order 33, Rule 3 of CPC. The defendants also filed an appeal, which was similarly rejected.
Smt. Dipo, the plaintiff, also appealed to the High Court of Punjab and Haryana. However, this second appeal was denied by the High Court on the grounds that it had lapsed as it was time-barred and there was a delay in submitting the required documents. The Trial Court’s decision was not submitted with the appeal’s application within the required time period. Hence, the appeal before the Supreme Court.
Issues involved
Whether the plaintiff, Smt. Dipo possesses any special rights to Bua Singh’s ancestral property or not?
Concept discussed in Smt. Dipo vs. Wassan Singh (1983)
Ancestral property under Hindu law
The property inherited by a Hindu from his two generations i.e., father’s father and father, is ancestral property. Property inherited from other relations is not ancestral property; it is separate property. The essential element of ancestral property is that if that person inheriting it has sons, grandsons, or great grandsons, they become joint owners with him.
Whereas, coparcenary refers to a type of property ownership where multiple people inherit the same property and each one of them owns an undivided, transferable interest in the property. Ancestral property is a type of coparcenary property.
Once a coparcenary comes into being, the interest of the deceased coparcener in the coparcenary property devolves through survivorship and not through succession. In other words, we can say that coparceners hold the property as joint tenants and not as tenants in common. Whereas, in ancestral property the interest in the property is transferred through succession. Upon the owner’s demise, the property equally devolves upon all children, irrespective of their birth order or gender.
Inheritance from parenteral property under Hindu law
Property inherited by a male Hindu from his father, father’s father, or father’s father’s father, is ancestral property. The children, grandchildren and great-grandchildren of the person inheriting such property acquire an interest in it by birth. Thus, the term ancestral property is confined to property descending to the father from his male ancestor in the male line, and it is only in that property that the sons (and now, the daughters) acquire an interest jointly with, and equal to that of, their father. Property inherited from other relatives would, therefore, not be ancestral property but separate property.
For example: If ‘X’ inherits property from his father’s father, it is ancestral property as regards his issues. If ‘X’ has no son or daughter when he inherits such property, he holds the property as the absolute owner thereof, and he can deal with the property in any manner he may choose to. If, however, such a person comes into existence subsequently, he/she becomes entitled to an interest in such property by the mere fact of his/her birth, and X cannot claim to hold the property as an absolute owner; nor can he deal with it as he likes.
Right to inherit the ancestral property
Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which applies to anyone who is a Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist or Jain by religion. According to this law, sons and daughters have equal rights to the ancestral property (daughters were given inheritance rights after the 2005 Amendment). Here, the ancestral property includes property from both paternal and maternal sides.
Another aspect of the Hindu law, known as the Hindu Undivided family law, which states that the property is deemed to be ancestral if it has been passed down through four generations of male lineage without any interruption.
Difference between ancestral and inherited property
Basis
Ancestral property
Inherited Property
Definition
Any property or possession that is passed down from the male line of descent for at least four generations.
A type of property that is usually passed onto an individual through the process of succession
Process of succession
Passed from great-grandfather to grandfather to father to son, all on the male line of descent.
Passed from the owner to the successor usually after death, through a will or interstate.
Partition
Ancestral property shall stay undivided. If it is partitioned, the divided property loses its status as an ancestral property.
Inherited property can be partitioned.
Governing laws
The concept of ancestral property only exists in Hindu law, whose inheritance laws are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925, and the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Transfer of inherited property is covered under the Hindu Succession Act for Hindus, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Arya Samaj. Muslims follow the Islamic law of inheritance, which is mostly uncodified, and the Indian Succession Act, 1925, covers the law of inheritance for Christians and Parsis.
Arguments by the parties
The following arguments were made by the petitioner and the respondent to support their allegations:
Petitioner
Smt. Dipo, the petitioner, had filed a legal action seeking to reclaim ownership of the assets belonging to Bua Singh, her deceased brother who had passed away in 1952. Smt. Dipo argued that she had the right to inherit Bua Singh’s property as his closest heir. Her central contention was that Bua Singh was her brother, and she sought to establish this tie to prove her rightful heirship as his sister.
Furthermore, Smt. Dipo contended that according to the local customs, sisters were considered preferred heirs to non-ancestral property of the deceased over other relatives in the paternal line who were not direct descendants. It was argued that the disputed estates were not entirely ancestral. Since some of the estates were not hereditary, she felt she should be acknowledged as the preferred successor and so entitled to inherit those lands.
Respondent
Bua Singh’s paternal uncle and Ganda Singh’s sons, who were the respondents in this case challenged the petitioner’s claim of being Bua Singh’s sister and his closest heir. They disputed her right to inherit Bua Singh’s property. According to the defendants, under the local customary law, they were the rightful heirs to Bua Singh’s property.
They interpreted these customary laws to mean that collateral relatives like Bua Singh’s paternal uncle and Ganda Singh’s sons had the right to inherit the property of their ancestors, whereas sisters were not given preference in inheritance matters. It was also asserted by the respondents that all of the disputed properties were ancestral and belonged to Bua Singh.
They even contended that they were entitled to the deceased’s entire property through inheritance, rejecting the petitioner’s assertion that some of the properties were not ancestral.
Judgement in Smt. Dipo vs. Wassan Singh (1983)
Decision by the Trial Court
The Subordinate Judge of the Trial Court held that the plaintiff was the sister of the deceased Bua Singh. It was found that most of the suit properties were ancestral properties, in the hands of Bua Singh while a few were not ancestral. Therefore, it was held that according to the customs, the sister was excluded by the collateral in the case of ancestral property, while she was entitled to inherit non-ancestral property, a decree was passed in the favour of the plaintiff for a share of the part of the land.
Decision by the District Court, Amritsar
The plaintiff then further preferred an appeal as a forma pauperis to the District Judge of Amritsar, which was dismissed on the ground that the plaintiff did not present the appeal in person as required by Order 33 Rule 3 of the CPC. The defendants also preferred an appeal which was also dismissed.
Decision by the High Court of Punjab and Haryana
After the dismissal of these, a second appeal was filed by the plaintiff in the High Court of Punjab and Haryana. This appeal was also dismissed stating that it was barred by limitation. It was stated that a copy of the Trial Court’s judgement was not filed along with the memorandum of second appeal. Though the memorandum of second appeal was filed within time, the copy of the judgement was filed after the expiry of the period of limitation and it was on that ground that the second appeal was dismissed.
Decision by the Apex Court
The Bench of the Supreme Court, consisting of Reddy, O. Chinnappa, Desai, and D.A. JJ. recognised Smt. Dipo as the sister of the deceased. The Lower Court’s decision was deemed to be inappropriate. The significant delay in Lower Court’s decision showed hesitation to rule in favour of the appellant concerning the ancestral property.
The court’s viewpoint regarding the ancestral property was that the defendants were considered collateral heir, and the plaintiff had precedence over the defendants’ claims and was a rightful heir to the property. The judgments and decree of the Subordinate Judge, District Judge, and High Court were all overturned. The appeal filed by the appellant was granted, and the defendants were held responsible for paying the plaintiff’s costs, including court fees owed to the government for the suit, appeal, second appeal, and Supreme Court appeal.
Ratio decidendi
The rationale behind the present judgement was stated by the Apex Court that rejection of the second appeal by the High court was unreasonable. Since the matter was specific and the second appeal from the appellant’s side was filed in time without delay, the court considered it inappropriate to reject the appeal on similar minor grounds on which it was rejected by the High Court. The High Court should have allowed the second appeal and decided it on its merits, despite the Trial Court’s delay in producing the copy of the judgement in time .
Regarding the District Judge’s rejection of the appeal because it wasn’t submitted in person, the court concluded that since the District Judge had formally accepted the appeal, dismissing it after acceptance would be meaningless. A person acquiring property from his ancestors from three generations is required under Hindu family law to hold it in coparcenary with his three closest male descendants. Still, if the person has a son, grandson, great- grandson, or great-great grandson, he must hold the property entirely as his own.
A male representative acquires a share of ancestral property by birth. The males are born with an interest in it. Still, the property is treated as independent property in other connections, and if the coparcener dies without a son, the property passes to his heirs at law through succession.
Author’s analysis
This case is a notable decision by the Supreme Court of India concerning inheritance under Hindu law, especially the rights of female heirs. The decision clarified the application of statutory inheritance laws in cases where customary practices might conflict with the statutory provisions. The case reinforced the rights of a female heir in the property. The case also underscored the importance of adhering to the statutory laws over customary practices over matters of inheritance. This case highlighted the legal recognition and protection of the inheritance rights of the female heirs, ensuring that widows and other female family members receive their due share of the property.
Conclusion
Under Hindu Family law, when a son inherits the property from his father, grandfather, or great-grandfather, it becomes part of a joint family property. This property is then collectively owned and managed by the son along with his descendants, which include his own son, his grandson, and his great-grandson. This type of collective ownership is referred to as a coparcener. In a coparcenary, all members have equal rights to the property, and it is passed down through the male lineage.
In the case, the court provided a detailed verdict passed clarifying the property rights in question. The court ruled in favour of the plaintiff, affirming their entitlement to the property. Additionally, the court allocated the legal expenses in accordance with this decision. The decision upholds the principle of property rights as understood within the legal framework and provides clear guidance for similar cases in the future.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Which order provides for filing a suit as pauper?
Order 33 of the Civil Procedure Code provides for filing a suit as a pauper.
What is forma pauperis?
It is a latin term meaning ‘in the manner of a pauper’. A suit brought in by forma pauperis allows a poor person to bring a suit without incurring the costs of the suit. It is not a right, it is subject to the discretion of the court.
What resulted in the filing of the second appeal in the High Court?
The dismissal of appeal by the District Court resulted in filing of the second appeal by the plaintiff in the High Court of Punjab and Haryana.
Is intestate law codified anywhere for the Hindus?
Yes, the intestate succession among Hindus is codified under Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The Act brought about changes in the Law of Succession among Hindus and gave rights which were till then unknown in relation to women’s property
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This article is written by Shweta Singh. It contains a detailed analysis of the judgement given by the division bench of the Supreme Court of India in the case of B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019). It exhaustively explains every aspect dealt with in this case. In addition to this, it also provides an in-depth analysis of the judgement along with important precedents cited by the Supreme Court.
Table of Contents
Introduction
In the case of B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019) (hereinafter referred to as “this case” or “present case”), the division bench of the Supreme Court has put at rest the long-standing controversy regarding issues like reservation in promotions and consequential seniority. In addition to addressing such issues, the court in this case has also elaborated on concepts like substantive equality and the relationship between merit and efficiency. The Supreme Court, in this case, reiterated that reservation is not a fundamental right under Article 16(4); rather, it works as an enabling provision wherein the government is vested with the authority to make provisions for reservation in appointment and promotion in favour of the backward section of society, if it feels that they are not adequately represented in public service posts under the government. This case is also interesting for the fact that it provides a new interpretation of the concept of efficiency under Article 335 of the Constitution of India and excludes the idea of the creamy layer from being applicable to the appointment of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Details of the case
Name of the case: B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2019)
Name of the court: Honourable Supreme Court of India
Dateof the judgement: 10 May, 2019
Parties to the case:
Appellant: B K Pavitra and Ors.
Respondent: The Union of India, The state of Karnataka, and SC and ST Engineer’s welfare association
Reservation in promotion with consequential seniority has always been a contentious issue. The courts in India have many times been called upon to decide the validity of providing reservation in promotions as it entails granting extra privileges to the SC/STs community, thereby violating the right to equality granted to every individual. The present case has gained extensive attention because it ends the long-lasting debate regarding the constitutionality of the reservation in promotion with consequential seniority. Therefore, in order to understand the basis for such a decision, it becomes important to have a slight knowledge of the background of the case concerning the reservation policy in India. The stance taken by the Supreme Court in various judgements, before this particular matter came before the Supreme Court in the present case.
Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1993)
The issue regarding the reservation for the first time came before a nine-judge constitutional bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1993)(hereinafter referred to as the “Indra Sawhney case”). The Supreme Court confirmed the provision of reservation for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs), and at the same time, it acknowledged that states have the power to implement reservation measures for OBCs in appointments under Article 16(4) of the Constitution. However, the court stated that this reservation provision does not apply to promotions and should be restricted to a maximum of 50%. Moreover, the court stressed that those belonging to the creamy layer should be excluded from the reservation benefits. This judgement barred the states from introducing reservations in promotions. Due to this judicial decision, the Parliament adopted several constitutional amendments in order to bypass these limitations.
77th Constitutional Amendment Act
After the Indra Sawhney ruling, the government realised that it could not use Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India to implement reservations in promotions for the reserved classes. Since the Supreme Court had unequivocally declared the illegality of reservation in promotions for the Backward Classes, the government chose the legislative route to confer constitutional validity on the provisions granting reservation in promotions to the backward classes. Consequently, in 1995, the government bypassed the impact of the Indra Sawhney case judgement by enacting the 77th Constitutional Amendment Act. The 77th Amendment Act added Article 16(4A) to the Constitution of India. This granted the state the authority to introduce reservations for SC/STs in matters of promotion if the state considered that the SCs and STs were not adequately represented in the service under the state.
Introduction of catch-up rule
After the constitutional recognition of reservation in promotions, the situation arose when the candidates from reserved categories who were promoted ahead of their general category counterparts would become their seniors by virtue of getting promoted early. To address this problem, two very important rulings, namely Union of India And Ors. Etc. vs. Virpal Singh Chauhan (1995) (Virpal Singh case) and Ajit Singh Januja & Ors. vs. State of Punjab & Ors. (1996) (Ajit Singh case), introduced the catch-up rule. This rule prescribed that seniority would be restored to general category candidates who were promoted after the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe candidates. As a result, they would be able to regain their seniority over the ones from the reserved categories who were promoted earlier.
81st and 85th Amendments Act
In the years 2000 and 2002, respectively, two amendments were introduced to facilitate the reservation of promotions for SC/STs candidates. These amendments were the 81st and 85th amendments to the Indian Constitution. The 81st Amendment brought into existence Article 16(4B). This Article authorised the government to carry forward the unfilled vacancy reserved for the SC/ST candidates in the matter of promotion in the previous year to the next year and therefore came to be known as the carry forward rule. Through the implementation of this Article, the government was allowed to breach the 50% ceiling imposed in the Indra Sawhney case decision on the reservation for a backward section of society. On the other hand, the 85th Amendment brought an amendment to Article 16(4A) and introduced the concept of consequential seniority. The principle of consequential seniority allows reservation candidates to keep their seniority over those from the general category. Thus, if a person from a reserved category is promoted earlier than a candidate from the general category because of the reservation policies, the reserved category candidate holds seniority for the later promotions as well. The introduction of consequential seniority in effect nullifies the catch-up rule introduced by the Supreme Court in the Virpal Singh case and the Ajit Singh case.
Challenge to the 77th, 81st, and 85th Amendments
The constitutional validity of all these amendments (the 77th, 81st, and 85th Amendments) was challenged in the case of M. Nagaraj and others v. Union of India and others (2006)(hereinafter referred to as “the M. Nagaraj case”). Upon hearing the argument, the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the amendments. The court also held that for the state to validly introduce reservations for SC/STs in promotion, they have to satisfy the three compelling necessities. They are as follows:
Backwardness of the SC/STs.
Inadequate representation of the SC/ST.
Efficiency of administration.
Following the M. Nagaraj case, various laws concerning reservation in promotion were struck down by the High Court and Supreme Court on the grounds of non-fulfillment of the criteria provided in the M. Nagaraj case. The B. K. Pavitra case of 2017 was one such case wherein the court struck down the reservation laws on the basis of the M. Nagaraj case judgement. As a result, various states appealed before the Supreme Court to review its judgement passed in the M. Nagaraj case. It was contended that the criteria provided in the M. Nagaraj case have made it difficult for the state to introduce a reservation policy for SC/STs in promotions. Consequently, the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Jarnail Singh v. Lacchmi Narain Gupta (2018)(Jarnail Singh case) reviewed the decision delivered in the M. Nagaraj case.
Jarnail Singh v. Lacchmi Narain Gupta (2018)
In the Jarnail Singh case, it was unanimously held by the constitutional bench of the Supreme Court that there was no need to constitute a larger seven-judge bench to review the M. Nagaraj judgement, which was related to the reservations in promotions of the SC/ST individuals. In addition, the court also decided to eliminate the backwardness criterion from the Nagaraj judgement. Moreover, the Court came up with the idea of the creamy layer exclusion, which is applicable not only to other backward classes but also to the SC/ST communities. Thus, the State cannot give reservation benefits in the promotion of SC/ST to individuals who are included in the creamy layer of their respective communities.
The present case
In this background, in 2019, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was again invoked to decide upon the validity of the Karnataka Determination of Seniority of the Government Servants Promoted on the Basis of the Reservation (to the Posts in the Civil Services of the State) Act 2002 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Reservation Act, 2002’). Another main issue that was required to be considered by the court was whether it followed the three criteria provided in the M. Nagaraj case.
Facts of B.K. Pavitra vs. Union of India (2019)
In the year 2002, the government of Karnataka enacted the Reservation Act, 2002, which in effect granted consequential seniority to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (ST/SC) employees in Karnataka public employment who are promoted under the reservation policy of India. The constitutional validity of the Reservation Act 2002 was challenged in the case of B.K. Pavitra v. Union of India (2017)(hereinafter referred to as “the B.K. Pavitra case 2017” ). The Supreme Court in this case struck down the Reservation Act 2002 on the grounds that it was violative of Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution of India. It was held that the state of Karnataka had failed to furnish sufficient data to justify the policy of consequential seniority. The court, in its order, granted a 3-month period to the state of Karnataka to take appropriate steps.
Following the judgement of the Supreme Court in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case, the state of Karnataka set up a committee known as the Ratna Prabha Committee, which was given the task of coming up with a comprehensive report that would substantiate compliance with the guidelines specified in the M. Nagaraj case. These criteria involved ascertaining the current social and economic status of the SC/STs communities, analysing the representation of ST/SCs in different government departments, and examining the impact of reservation policies in promotion on the efficiency of administration. After taking into consideration the suggestions recommended by the Ratna Prabha Committee, the state of Karnataka enacted the Karnataka Extension of Consequential Seniority to Government Servants Promoted on the Basis of Reservation (to the Posts in the Civil Services of the State) Act 2018 (hereinafter referred to as ‘the Reservation Act 2018’). The provisions of Sections 3 and 4 of the Reservation Act 2018 provided for the reservation of promotions and consequential seniority, respectively. These provisions were retrospectively made effective from April 24, 1978. After the Reservation Act 2018 was passed, petitions were filed assailing the validity of the legislation as being ultra vires of Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution of India.
Issues raised
The constitutional validity of the Reservation Act 2018 raised several issues for the Supreme Court to decide. The main issues that were raised by the court are as follows:
Whether the Reservation Act 2018 can be held unconstitutional for lack of proper assent.
Whether the enactment of the Reservation Act 2018 takes away the basis of the ruling made in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case.
Whether the basis of the judgement in the case of B. K. Pavitra 2017 has been addressed.
Arguments of the parties
Arguments raised by the petitioners
The arguments raised by the petitioners are as follows:
It was argued by the petitioners that the state legislature, by enacting the Reservation Act 2018, has acted beyond its authority, as such an enactment resulted in overruling the decision provided by the Supreme Court in the case of B.K. Pavitra in 2017. The petitioner raised the argument that there was no difference between the Reservation Act 2002 and the Reservation Act 2018. The legislature simply re-enacted the previous legislation without rectifying its flaws. They further argued that the legislative organ is bound by the provisions of the Constitution of India and hence it can not override the judicial decision without taking away the grounds upon which it was based.
The petitioner contended that, as per the principle of separation of power, which separates the legislature from the judiciary, the state legislature cannot infringe upon the authority of the judiciary by attempting to overturn judicial decisions. It was argued by the petitioner that a judicial ruling could only be reversed by a statute enacted by the competent legislature as provided under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Such legislative power mandates that legislation must alter the legal basis of the original decision upon which it is based. They emphasised the binding nature of the court’s decision unless there were significant legal and circumstantial changes in the laws and conditions underlying the legislation, which had been held invalid by the court.
The petitioner assailed the report of the Ratna Prabha Committee and asserted that the report lacked relevance and failed to follow the guidelines provided by the Supreme Court in the M. Nagaraj case and the Jarnail Singh case.
It was further argued by the petitioners that the Governor of Karnataka sent the Karnataka Extension of Consequential Seniority to Government Servants Promoted on the Basis of Reservation (to the Posts in the Civil Services of the State) Bill 2017 (hereinafter referred to as “the Bill”) to the President for consideration without explaining the reason for that action. Despite this action, the state government asserted that there was no legitimate basis for referring the Bill to the President. The subsequent communication and queries exchanged between the state government and the President’s office were deemed insufficient to constitute a valid reference of the Bill to the President.
In crux, the main arguments presented by the petitioners were that it was not within the authority of the legislature to enact a new law overriding the existing legal rulings, provided the underlying basis of the previous law had been substantially altered. It is against the principles of separation of power and it is not permitted to simply enact a new law for the purpose of circumventing a previous legal decision. It was also contended that the report of the Ratna Prabha Committee, upon the recommendation of which the Reservation Act 2018 was proposed to be enacted was flawed and violated the principles laid down in the M. Nagaraj case.
Arguments raised by the respondents
The arguments presented by the respondents are as follows:
The respondents argued that the Reservation Act 2018 was enacted with the object of remedying the existing issue, thereby implying that the legislation mentioned above is curative in nature. Therefore, enactment of such legislation did not amount to infringement of the power of the judiciary and is not violative of the doctrine of separation of powers.
It was further argued by the respondent that the legislature had absolute authority to collect data for public welfare and legitimate purposes. They contended that the report prepared by the Ratna Prabha Committee through the compilation of several pieces of data was in accordance with the guidelines prescribed under the M. Nagaraj case and Jarnail Singh case.
It was also argued by the respondents that the Governor had the power to exercise his discretionary power with regard to the Bill under Article 200 of the Constitution of India. It is upon his discretion to either give his assent to the Bill, withhold its assent, or send it to the President for his consideration in situations where there is any confusion regarding the applicability of any of the provisions of the law. They stated that the President’s assent is essential to preventing potential constitutional challenges that may arise in the future. Therefore, the Governor, in sending the Bill for the President’s assent, exercised his discretionary power to negate any possibility of complications or issues arising due to the complex constitutional framework.
At the outset, the main contention of the respondent was that the enactment of the Reservation Act 2018 could not be struck down by the court since the act fulfils the criteria provided under the M. Nagaraj case. The report prepared by the Ratna Prabha Committee justified that the state had a compelling reason to provide for reservations for SC/STs in promotions.
Important laws discussed in B.K. Pavitra vs. Union of India (2019)
Right to equality v. reservation
Fundamental rights are guaranteed under the Constitution of India to protect and safeguard the basic human rights of an individual. One of the fundamental rights is the right to equality. The right to equality is one of the essential rights that guarantees equality before the law for people of all castes, races, religions, places of birth, and genders. It includes the elimination of discrimination in employment, the abolition of untouchability, and the removal of titles. Articles 14, Article 15, Article 16, Article 17, and Article 18 of the Indian Constitution elaborate on the right to equality. This basic right is the foundation for all other rights and privileges given to Indian citizens; therefore, it is one of the vital guarantees in the Constitution of India.
The right to equality can be differentiated into formative and substantive equality. Formative equality would result in strict rules of equality, wherein no individual shall be discriminated against in accessing public offices, places, or in public matters. Any deviation from this rule would lead to an exception to the right to equality. The substantive right to equality, on the other hand, envisages that for equality to be effective in its truest form, it must acknowledge and address the existing inequalities present in society. Reservation is thus not an exception to the right to equality but rather a means to achieve true equality by accounting for the structural disadvantages an individual suffers from birth.
Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India stipulates that every individual shall be treated equally in matters of employment and appointment to any post falling under the authority of the state. Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, on the other hand, mentions that the provisions of Article 16 shall not apply if the state decides to provide reservation in appointment to the SC/STs and other backward classes considering their inadequate representations in these appointments. If Article 16(1) only defines the concept of formal equality of opportunity, then Article 16(4) is a departure from the strict observance of formal equality as stated in Article 16(1). Nevertheless, if Article 16(1) itself establishes the principle of substantive equality, then Article 16(4) becomes part of the expression of a particular aspect of the principle of substantive equality as specified in Article 16(1). In other words, providing reservation is not an exception to the right to equality but an essential aspect of realising true equality for every individual with respect to their social and economic status.
During the debate in the Constituent Assembly concerning the principles of equality enunciated under Article 16, it has been vehemently asserted by the members that in order to achieve true equality of opportunity, it is important for the Constitution to expressly recognise the existing inequalities in society.
Subsequently, in the case of State of Kerala & Anr vs. N. M. Thomas & Ors. (1975), a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court interpreted Article 16(4) as a facet of the right to equality under Article 14 of the Constitution of India.It was observed by the court that Article 16(4) might be regarded as a violation of Article 16(1) if the equality of opportunity mentioned in Article 16(1) is just a simple numerical equality and does not consider the social, economic and educational backgrounds of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Nevertheless, if the equality of opportunity as stated in Article 16(1) means real material equality, then Article 16(4) is not a deviation from Article 16(1); rather, it highlights the degree to which opportunity for everyone can be extended, even to the extent of introducing reservations.
Efficiency of administration
The term efficiency of administration has not been defined under the Constitution of India. However, the term has been used under Article 335, which ensures the maintenance of the efficiency of administration while considering the appointments of SC/STs to public services and positions. Through seventy years of constitutional jurisprudence related to reservations, the Supreme Court of India has laid emphasis on the principles of efficacy & merit in adjudicating the legality of different reservation policies in India. The court, through several of its landmark judgements, such as the Indra Sawhney case and the M. Nagaraj case, has established that the reservation policies enacted under Article 16(4) of the Constitution should comply with the limitations outlined in Article 335.
In the case of General Manager, Southern Railway. v. Rangachari (1962), it was held that a balance must be struck between reservation policies and administration efficiency. This implies that in order to make provisions for reservations for the backward sections of society, it should be kept in mind that, in doing so, the efficiency of administration is not compromised. The court further mentions that reservation policies should be applied cautiously and measures should be taken to avoid the creation of monopoly, and unfair treatment resulting in disadvantage to other employees.
Furthermore, the case of Akhil Bharatiya Soshit Karamchari Sangh (Railway) v. Union of India (1981) illustrates that it should be the foremost purpose to maintain efficiency in administration, which, in turn, serves the common interests of the public rather than solely benefiting a specific group. Therefore, any actions taken regarding the claims of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) must align with this paramount need to maintain administrative efficiency. It is widely recognized that an effective administration is achieved by allowing open recruitment based on merit, where excellence is the primary criterion and the emphasis is solely on equality. This approach ensures that the most qualified individuals are selected, regardless of factors such as religion, caste, gender, descent, place of birth, or residence. In the case of Janki Prasad Parimoo v. State of Jammu and Kashmir (1973), the court underlined the necessity of accurately specifying backward classes so as not to include socially and educationally advanced populations in the category. Such inclusion might subvert the main aim that has been attempted to be achieved through the provisions of reservation. Additionally, during the selection of candidates for important public positions, any reservation policy for the backward class needs to be approached with greater attentiveness. This is because efficiency as well as the public interest must always be the top priorities.
However, the Supreme Court, in its 1985 ruling in the case ofK. C. Vasanth Kumar v. State of Karnataka (1985)firmly and conclusively dismissed the merit argument as provided in the aforementioned cases. Justice Chinnappa Reddy stated that whenever a reservation is discussed, the privileged always raise the issue of efficiency. According to them, only the most talented and brightest ones are eligible to occupy a seat in civil service posts and move up the ranks. However, Justice Chinnappa Reddy stated that this is not always the case. The civil service is not a perfect place and not all those from privileged backgrounds are always efficient. There’s an idea that people of higher castes or classes who get non-reserved posts on the basis of merit will ultimately be more efficient than those in reserved positions. This presumption is unjust and shows the elitist views of the privileged classes.
The Supreme Court in the present case also dealt with the interpretation of the term efficiency under Article 335 of the Constitution of India. The court explained that Article 335 should not be interpreted based on the unfair assumption that SCs and STs promoted through roster points are less efficient or that efficiency decreases when they are appointed. Such assumptions are unfair because they stem from deep-seated social biases. The measure of administrative efficiency should not be based on an abstract ideal reflected in the performance of candidates from the open category. Instead, efficiency in administration should be defined inclusively, ensuring that diverse sections of society are represented, reflecting the true essence of governance for the people. The court emphasised that efficiency should be defined inclusively, considering the representation of diverse segments of society. The court further highlighted the constitutional mandate for inclusion and equal citizenship, asserting that inclusion is essential for a well-governed society. It concludes by rejecting the idea that efficiency and consideration of SCs’ and STs’ claims are mutually exclusive, advocating for an approach that integrates both principles to achieve a just social order.
M. Nagaraj Case
In the present case, one of the main issues was whether the state, before enacting the Reservation Act 2018, fulfilled the criteria provided under the M. Nagaraj case. The Supreme Court also mentioned this case in numerous places while delivering its judgement in the present case. Therefore, it becomes important to understand the decision held by the Supreme Court in the M. Nagaraj case. In the case of M. Nagraj, the constitutional validity of the 77th, 81st, and 85th amendments was challenged on the ground that these amendments were against the basic structure of the Constitution of India. The 77th Amendment granted reservations in promotions to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The 81st Amendment enabled states to carry forward vacancies that could not be filled for one year to other years without reducing the 50% reservation limit. The 85th Amendment gave consequential seniority to the candidates who were promoted early due to reservations.
The Supreme Court, after analysing their validity, declared that these amendments, which resulted in the addition of Articles 16(4A) and 16(4B), were in accordance with Article 16(4). They neither modified the context of Article 16(4) nor excluded the criteria of backwardness and inadequate representation for providing reservations. It was held by the court that the challenged amendments were only applicable to SC/STs and did not take away any of the constitutional requirements, including a 50% reservation limit, the creamy layer, or the difference between SC/STs and other backward classes.
In addition, the Supreme Court highlighted that the idea of reservation outlined in Article 16(4) is subject to three constitutional prerequisites: the underrepresentation of a certain group in public employment, their backwardness, and the general efficiency of administration. The court stated that the requirements are still in effect even though the challenged constitutional amendments were passed. The court further stated that the problem to be discussed was not whether reservation was allowed but rather the degree of its application. If the number of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes, Tribes, and others exceeds a reasonable limit, it could be in violation of the principle of equality as stated in Article 16(4) of the Constitution. The level of the reservation should be evaluated on the basis of the particular case. Backwardness and underrepresentation are valid grounds for the government to use the reservation in public employment. Nevertheless, if the court decides that the reservation under state law is excessive, it may declare it unconstitutional because it would be in conflict with the constitutional requirements.
The Supreme Court had confirmed the constitutional validity of reservation in promotions but had also required the states to collect the quantitative data that proves the backwardness and underrepresentation of the concerned group in public employment, in addition to compliance with Article 335. The court had put strong stress on the fact that even if the state has a good reason like backwardness, underrepresentation, and the need to keep administrative efficiency, the reservation provisions would not violate the basic constitutional requirement of maintaining the 50% ceiling in the reservation, excluding creamy layer and not extending the reservation indefinitely.
Judgement of the case
In this case, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the Reservation Act 2018, affirming that it aligns with the provisions of the Constitution of India. The court emphasised that the legislature had been given extensive authority under the law of the land to conduct important public-purpose activities like data collection. The court acknowledged the legislature’s power to establish the Ratna Prabha Committee, which was tasked with the duties of data collection, consolidation, analysis, and compilation. In conclusion, the court upheld that the actions of the legislature, including the establishment of the committee, were within its legal mandate and consonant with constitutional principles.
The court further held that the respondents were in compliance with the standards set out in the M. Nagaraj case and the Jarnail Singh case. Besides, the Bench made a noteworthy observation, implying that the concept of the creamy layer was not applicable in cases that involved consequential seniority. Therefore, the court simultaneously strengthened the base of consequential seniority in reservations and cleared the confusion that the creamy layer principle does not apply to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, thus again confirming its earlier position that was laid down in the Indira Sawhney judgement.
It was further held by the Supreme Court that the state of Karnataka had successfully remedied the basic issues that rendered the law ineffective and unconstitutional in the case of B. K. Pavitra in 2017. This correction was done within the legal powers of the State. Concerning the relevancy of the data collected by the Ratna Prabha Committee, the court concluded that the data in the present case was relevant and thus the state could make suitable legislation about reservations in promotions and consequential seniority in civil services on government jobs. Thus, the court held that the legislature, in enacting the Reservation Act 2018 on the recommendation of the Ratna Prabha Committee, had neither overstepped the power granted to the judiciary by the Constitution of India nor contradicted the court’s mandate.
The court, in its judgement also addressed the arguments pertaining to reservations hampering administration efficiency. The court disagreed with such a proposition and instead pointed it out as a ‘stereotypical preconception’ that is merely a veil for social discrimination. It emphasised that efficiency in administration should be understood in an inclusive manner, reflecting the true aspiration of governance by and for the people. Therefore, the only way to have total efficiency in government is through inclusive representation of the diverse population. The court highlighted that the standards we set for effectiveness would shape our outcomes. If efficiency is built on exclusion, it will end up making governance disadvantageous to marginalised communities. Contrarily, if the concept of efficiency is built upon equal access, such a concept embodies the commitment of the Constitution to build a just social order. The court additionally recognised that the reservation given to the SCs and the STs was not against merit but aligned with the principles of meritocracy. This is buttressed by the Reservation Act 2018, which includes a statutory period of assessment of the candidates before confirming their promotion to ensure that merit remains the major criterion.
The court upheld the retrospective effect of the Reservation Act 2018 from 1978 by observing that since promotions that came up before March 1, 1996, were protected, it was fair that the law also protected the seniority status that materialised through those promotions. The court affirmed that the suggestion of the Ratna Prabha Committee to apply the Reservation Act 2018 retrospectively was neither unfair nor unconstitutional.
On the basis of the above findings and observations, the Supreme Court in the present case held that the Reservation Act 2018 is constitutionally valid, which had been enacted by the government after duly fulfilling the mandate provided in the M. Nagaraj case and dismissed the petition filed in this case.
Issue-wise judgement of the case
Whether the Reservation Act 2018 can be held unconstitutional for want of proper assent.
While deciding this particular issue, the Supreme Court pointed out that the Constitution of India provides under Article 200 that the Governor will either give his assent by signing the bill passed by the state legislature, withhold the assent, or refer the bill to the President for consideration. Article 201 on the other hand, provides that where the bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, in that case, a President may give his assent to the bill or withhold its assent. On the basis of analysing the aforementioned Articles and the precedents propounded in the previous case, the Supreme Court negated the arguments asserted by the appellants that the Reservation Act 2018 needs to be held unconstitutional for want of assent. It was held by the court that after the Governor reserved the Bill (which subsequently turned into the Reservation Act 2018) for the President’s consideration, it became the obligation of the President to either affirm the Bill or reject it. Since the President granted his approval to the Bill, the requirements and directives stipulated in Article 201 of the Constitution were duly fulfilled. Moreover, the court also held that the validity of the President’s assent could not be challenged before a court of law, hence it is non-justiciable. Accordingly, the court concluded that the Reservation Act 2018 cannot be struck down as unconstitutional for lack of proper assent, thereby dismissing the arguments raised by the appellant regarding the validity of an assent to the Bill.
Whether the enactment of the Reservation Act 2018 takes away the basis of the ruling made in the B.K Pavitra 2017 case.
The Supreme Court in the B.K Pavitra 2017 case made the guidelines given in the M. Nagaraj case the foundation of its ruling. These guidelines provided that for the purpose of exercising the enabling power outlined under the provisions of Article 16(4A), the state government had to justify the necessity of providing reservations to ST/SC. This necessity could be proved by collecting quantifiable data showcasing the lack of representation of ST/SCs in different government departments, their backwardness, and the impact of reservation policies in promotion on the efficiency of administration. Consequently, the Supreme Court in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case held that the State of Karnataka had failed to collect such data that is mandatory for providing reservation in promotion and to provide for consequential seniority as per the provisions of Article 16(4A). Therefore, on this ground, it was held by the court that the Reservation Act 2002 was unconstitutional.
The Supreme Court in the present case, after examining the judgement given in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case, observed that the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case did not bar the state from collecting the database, which is the compulsory precondition to exercising the enabling power under Article 16(4A) of the Constitution. It emphasised that the legislature had absolute authority to enact laws and this power was applicable to enacting laws with both retrospective and prospective effects. The legislature cannot directly overrule the decision of the court; it can, however, amend existing laws or pass new ones to deal with the issues raised by the court’s ruling. Such an enactment would remove the basis of the judgement upon which the law was held to be invalid by the courts in exercising their power of judicial review. This also includes the passing of curative legislation, which is permissible under constitutional principles and is not considered a violation of judicial power. Applying such observation to the Reservation Act 2018, which was challenged in this case, the Supreme Court found that the Reservation Act 2018 did not nullify the judicial ruling passed in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case but instead acted on the underlying reasons that led to the decision to hold the Reservation Act 2002 invalid. Therefore, the Reservation Act 2018 could not be considered invalid as it had been enacted by removing the basis of the ruling in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case.
To support its decision on this particular issue, the Supreme Court referred to several of the earlier decisions of this court that dealt with the same issue. The court referred to the case of Utkal Contractors & Joinery (P) Ltd. v. State of Orissa (1987)wherein the court stated that under Articles 245 and 246 of the Constitution, the legislature has the power to make a judicial decision ineffective by passing a valid law. It underscores that there is no bar on the retroactive application of legislation, as the legislature is competent to pass the laws both retrospectively and prospectively within their legislative capacity and subject to constitutional limitations. It was further established by the court in this case that legislative enactments may render judgments or orders of the court ineffective by changing the basis of those judgements or orders, which is a common practice in validating acts. These enactments, focused on fixing the reasons for the ineffectiveness or unconstitutionality of actions or proceedings, in no way interfere with the power of the judiciary. However, it was clarified that the legislature has no authority to overrule, reverse or set aside a judicial decision by way of a declaration or without removing the basis of the judgement.
The court also referred to the case of State of Tamil Nadu v. Arooran Sugars Ltd. (1996) to support its decision. In this case, the constitutional bench of the Supreme Court recognised the authority of the legislature to enact a law with retrospective effect in order to rectify an error identified by the court. Therefore, it was held that enacting such a law did not nullify the writ or usurp the judicial power. By addressing the deficiency in the law, the legislature acts within its scope of authority.
The Supreme Court in the present case, following the judgements provided in the above case, observed that a declaration by a court of a law’s invalidity did not restrict the legislature from addressing the underlying reasons for that declaration and curing the defect. While remedying the defect, it becomes essential for the legislature to understand the reasons behind the invalidation since these reasons are the basis upon which the law has been declared invalid. The legislature could not just disregard the declaration without considering the grounds why the law was deemed unconstitutional. For instance, if the law has been declared unconstitutional due to the lack of authority of the legislative body to enact it on a particular subject. Only a legislator with the proper authority can then enact a new law that covers the subject. In the same manner, if a law was declared ineffective as a result of a violation of fundamental rights, a new regulation must be drafted in such a way that these freedoms are respected. Thus, the final test is whether the legislature has acted within its jurisdiction to correct the reasons for the earlier law’s constitutional defect.
The Supreme Court in the end also referred to the case of Madan Mohan Pathak vs. Union of India & Ors. (1978)(Madan Mohan Pathak case),which has been extensively relied upon by the petitioner in asserting its contention that the legislature, by enacting the Reservation Act 2018, had nullified the basis of the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case judgement. The Supreme Court rendered the aforementioned case as distinguished from the facts of the present case. It was held that the Madan Mohan Pathak case deals with the situation in which the law was passed by the legislature to override the writ of mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court regarding the payment of bonuses under an industrial settlement. It did not relate to the situation where the law enacted was declared unconstitutional and the basis of the judgement was sought to be rectified.
Whether the basis of the judgement in the case of B. K. Pavitra 2017 has been addressed.
The B.K. Pavitra 2017 case held the Reservation Act 2002 unconstitutional since the state failed to collect data on the parameters outlined in the M. Nagaraj case. Subsequent to the decision delivered in the B.K. Pavitra 2017 case, the state of Karnataka set up the Ratna Prabha Committee. The committee was tasked with collecting data and submitting a report on the parameters of the adequacy of representation, backwardness, and overall efficiency. The collection of such data was declared mandatory in the M. Nagaraj case before exercising the enabling power conferred under Article 16(4A) of the Indian Constitution. On the basis of the report, the state legislature enacted the Reservation Act of 2018. The report of the Ratna Prabha Committee was contested by the petitioner on the grounds that the data collected by the committee was irrelevant and erroneous. Refuting these arguments by the petitioners, the court held that the methodology utilised by the Ratna Prabha Committee was not shown to deviate from conventional social science methodologies. There was no proof to show that the Committee based its findings on irrelevant material; therefore, its sampling methodologies could not be considered arbitrary. The court confirmed the validity of sampling as a data collection method; thus, it concluded that the exercise could not be invalidated just because of the fact that data from some departments or entities was not evaluated. The data gathered was from a wide range of thirty-one departments, thus it was deemed adequately representative. The state thoroughly investigated the appropriate and authentic data and then made the final decisions. Moreover, the court reiterated that judicial review cannot be used to investigate factual matters related to data gathering, compilation, and analysis.
The court noted that after the State government had formed an opinion based on a report submitted by an expert committee that collected, analysed, and compiled relevant data, it became impossible for the court to decide that the state had failed to provide compelling reasons for providing reservations outlined in the M. Nagaraj case. Even if there are some mistakes in the data collection process, this alone does not invalidate a law that the competent legislature was authorised to enact. The court stressed that the decision in the B. K. Pavitra 2017 case was followed by the establishment of the Ratna Prabha Committee, which was the right step to be taken in conducting the required assessment. After the evaluation has been done, the court must be careful in using its power of judicial review to reexamine the factual material that was on the record. Hence, the court should be cautious and not overrule the findings of the State’s conclusions based on the data offered by the expert committee, as long as the process was carried out in accordance with the law.
Critical analysis of B.K. Pavitra vs. Union of India (2019)
A two-judge bench ruling delivered by the Supreme Court on May 10 could significantly influence the ongoing debate on reservations in a way that a five or nine-judge constitutional bench has not been able to do so for the last three decades. The judgement stands out for conclusively ending a long-standing debate over the concept of merit and efficiency and for its verdict that the principle of the creamy layer does not apply to SC/ST candidates. The court, in its judgement aptly refuted the argument that appointment based on merit increased efficiency by asserting that the efficiency of an administration depends upon the action taken by the officials once they get appointed or promoted; efficiency can not be judged at the level of conducting the selection process. This case, thereby, becomes a tool for demonstrating that there exists no antithesis between the efficiency of administration and the claims of the SC/ST candidates to an appointment; rather, both are the means of realising the constitutional ideals of equality. It also creates an understanding that considering SC/STs as worthy of participating in the affairs of governance is crucial for ensuring equality. This will be achieved by adopting an inclusive approach that demands that every section of society that has been historically oppressed gets a say in the affairs of governance. Therefore, inclusion cannot be separated from a well-governed society.
Conclusion
The decision of the Supreme Court, in this case, is of high importance because it showcases the court’s reasoning on wide-ranging issues and how it swiftly moves from discussing specific issues of administrative jurisprudence to broader principles of substantive equality and merit. The court’s decision on the substantive question law concerning the constitutionality of the seniority law is rooted in its understanding of the Constitution’s equality principles. The court, through its decision, had underscored that constitutional principles are of utmost importance and explained how such principles guide the court in making informed decisions. By critically examining the concepts of merit and efficiency rather than taking them as self-evident, the court emphasised that judicial reasoning always emanates from the perspective of the original constitutional vision. It was further highlighted by the court that the constitutional vision recognises these concepts as intricately engraved in our social realities, together with inequalities. This kind of judicial reasoning has remained underdeveloped in our constitutional history; however, the decision delivered by the Supreme Court in this case represents an important step in its evolution.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Is reservation a fundamental right?
Reservation is not a fundamental right under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India. Various court decisions, including the Indra Sawhney and M. Nagaraj cases, have clarified that the provisions of Article 16 are enabling in nature and mandate the government to introduce reservation policies if they consider that any backward section of society is not adequately represented in the public job posts.
What is meant by consequential seniority?
The principle of consequential seniority allows reservation candidates to keep their seniority over those from the general category. Thus, if a person from a reserved category is promoted earlier than a candidate from the general category because of the reservation policies, the reserved category candidate holds seniority for the later promotions as well.
What are the three criteria established in the M. Nagaraj case?
The constitutional validity of all these amendments (the 77th, 81st, and 85th Amendments) was challenged in the M. Nagaraj case. Upon hearing the argument, the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the amendments. The court also held that for the state to validly introduce reservations for SC/STs in promotion, they have to satisfy the three compelling necessities. They are as follows:
Backwardness of the SC/STs.
Inadequate representation of the SC/ST.
Efficiency of administration.
What is meant by the catch-up rule in reservation?
This rule prescribed that seniority would be restored to general category candidates who were promoted after the Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe candidates. As a result, they would be able to regain their seniority over the ones from the reserved categories who were promoted earlier.
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This article was written by Utkarsh Singhand further updated by Pujari Dharani. This article deals with the case analysis of Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023), which exhaustively explains the background facts of the case, laws involved in the case, arguments, the detailed judgement with ratio decidendi and the dissent by Justice B.V. Nagarathna. The case deals with questions like the restrictions to Article 19(1)(a), its enforceability against the non-state actors, and the State’s liability for the minister’s derogatory statements, among other things.
Table of Contents
Introduction
It is pertinent to mention a Sanskrit text, which was cited by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India at the beginning of its judgement. The Sanskrit verse says:
सत्यं ब्रूयात प्रियं ब्रूयान न ब्रूयत सत्यम् अप्रियम् |
प्रियं च नानृतं ब्रूयाद एष धर्मः सनातनः ||
satyam brūyāt priyaṃ brūyān na brūyāt satyam apriyam |
priyaṃ ca nānṛtaṃ brūyād eṣa dharmaḥ sanātanaḥ ||
It means “speak what is true; speak what is pleasing; Do not speak what is unpleasant, even if it is true; And do not say what is pleasing, but untrue; this is the eternal law.”
The Constitution of India grants its citizens certain fundamental rights. One of these is Article 19(1)(a) which guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression. This right allows citizens to think, speak, and share opinions and information freely. However, certain restrictions have to be imposed on this freedom so that such a speech does not become the cause of anarchy. Article 19(2) lays down the reasonable restrictions that can be imposed on the exercise of this right. The real question that stands here is whether the restrictions mentioned in Article 19(2) are enough to safeguard the rights of the people. Should more restrictions be imposed on this freedom? What if the speech of a person endangers the dignity or privacy of another person? What if such a person, who made a controversial speech, is a public functionary? Can a State be held responsible for such speech and harm caused to the aggrieved party?
In the case of Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (2023), many such significant questions were raised before the Constitutional Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Let us look into this case to know how the judiciary, regarded as the defender of constitutional rights, dealt with such crucial issues.
Details of the case
Following are the details of the case-
Case Name- Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors.
Bench– Justice S. Abdul Nazeer, Justice B.R. Gavai, Justice A.S. Bopanna, Justice V. Ramasubramanian, and Justice B.V. Nagarathna.
Petitioner– Kaushal Kishor
Counsels who represented the petitioner- Aparajitha Singh, the Senior Advocate (Amicus Curiae); Advocates-on-Record namely Uttara Babbar, Suvidutt M.S., and Manju Jetley; and Advocates namely Shipra Jain, Kaleeswaram Raj, Thulasi K. Raj, Somlagna Biswas, Rishesh Sikarwar, Aman Khullar, Renu Yadav, Samer Jit Singh Chaudhry, Hitesh Kumar Sharma, Akhileshwar Jha, Niharika Dewivedi, E. Vinay Kumar, Amit Kumar Chawla, Nitin Sharma, Ravish Kumar Goyal, Narendra Pal Sharma, Shweta Sand and Mirdula Singh Chauhan.
Respondents- State of Uttar Pradesh & Others
Counsels who represented the respondents- Attorney General of India, R. Venkataramani; Solicitor General of India, Tushar Mehta; Additional Solicitor Generals of India namely Balbir Singh and Madhavi Divan; Additional Advocate General, Garima Prasad; Senior Advocate, R. Bala; Advocates-on-Record namely Arvind Kumar Sharma, Mukesh Kumar Maroria, Ajay Vikram Singh, Swarupama Chaturvedi, Pradeep Misra, Abhishek, Lakshmi Raman Singh and Lakshmi N. Kaimal; Advocates namely Naman Tandon, Samarvir Singh, Presenjeet Mohapatra, Rajat Nair, Ankur Talwar, Kanu Agrawal, Anirudh Bhatt, Shyam Gopal, Monica Benjamin, Sujatha Bagadhi, Shraddha Deshmukh, Udai Khanna, Anu S., Mayank Pandey, Vinayak Mehrotra, Chitvan Singhal, Sonali Jain, Abhishek Kumar Pandey, Vikas Bansal, Priyanka Singh, Sharjheel Ahmad, Renjith B. Marar, Arun Poomuli, Ashu Jain and Davesh Kumar Sharma.
Judgement Date– 3rd January, 2023
Background facts of the case
On 29 July 2016, a young girl and her mother were gang-raped on National Highway 91 in Uttar Pradesh. They travelled from Noida to Shahjahanpur with other family members to attend a relative’s last rites, the said gang robbed cash as well as jewellery which were in their possession. The men that were travelling with them were tied up in the field and beaten harshly. The First Information Report (hereinafter referred to as “FIR”) was registered on 30 July 2016 at the Bulandshahr Police Station for the offences of gang rape under Sections 395, 397 and 376D of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (hereinafter referred to as “IPC”) read with the Protection of Children from Sexual Offence (POCSO) Act.
Following this, the media got involved with this incident and it made it to the headlines all over newspapers, television channels and social media. Azam Khan, who was a minister for urban development in Uttar Pradesh, while addressing the public described this alleged gangrape incident as a “political conspiracy” because “elections were near, and the desperate opposition could stoop to any level to defame the government”. Thereafter, an FIR was registered against the said minister under charges Sections 395, 397, 376-D, and 342 of the IPC.
In 2016, a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution was filed by the husband and the father of the two gangrape survivors to seek the following relief from the Supreme Court.
To monitor the criminal investigation of this case by the Central Bureau of Investigation (hereinafter mentioned as “CBI”).
To conduct the trial proceedings of the said case outside the State of Uttar Pradesh as Azam Khan’s statement spoiled the chance of a fair hearing in that State.
To register a complaint against Azam Khan for passing such statements which allegedly was outrageous to the modesty of the victims.
They argued that Azam Khan’s public Statement adversely affected the reputation of the victims. Following this petition, the Supreme Court Bench made Azam Khan a respondent to the case. He later presented an unconditional apology before the Supreme Court and offered his sincere remorse to the petitioner.
The court accepted this apology and moved on to consider the larger questions that were involved in the case. The case continued and, by an order dated 5th October 2017, a three-judge bench directed the writ petition to a five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court to decide on important questions, i.e., the right to free speech on sensitive matters that are under investigation and whether it offers an individual’s right to a dignified life. This was with respect to the Statement made by the minister. In the 2017 order, the Supreme Court also considered a Special Leave Petition (SLP) from the Kerala High Court. This petition involved two public interest litigations against the Minister for Electricity of the Government of Kerala. The minister had allegedly made derogatory statements against a female principal, a student’s mother, and women labourers at a tea plantation. These petitions were dismissed by a Division Bench of the High Court of Kerala on the ground that the questions are of such a nature that it has no jurisdiction to decide upon the same. Petitioners in this case contended that no official action was taken against the said minister though a public censure was issued by the political party to which he belonged. The petitioner in this SLP sought the Supreme Court to take the following steps.
To direct the Chief Minister of Kerala to frame a Code of Conduct for the ministers who took the oath before entering into the office as prescribed by the Constitution.
To direct the Chief Minister of Kerala to take appropriate action if any minister breached what he or she promised in the oath.
To direct the concerned authorities to take action against the minister for his derogatory statements.
Because a few questions to be decided by the Supreme Court in the said SLP and the writ petition were the same, though the facts and circumstances of the case were different, the Court decided to hear the matter together by tagging them.
Chronological list of events
For a better and more detailed understanding of the background of the case, it is suggested to go through the below table consists of a chronological list of legal developments.
Date
Event
29th July, 2016
A minor girl and her mother were gang-raped on the National Highway 91 in Uttar Pradesh.
30th July, 2016
An FIR was lodged at the Bulandshahr Police Station.
13th August, 2016
The minor girl in the Bulandshahr gang-rape incident approached the Supreme Court and sought an FIR to be lodged against the minister for making such outrageous statements about her and the incident.The girl also alleged that the police were helping the accused and, hence, prayed to the Court to transfer the case to Delhi and the investigation of this case, which is being conducted by the CBI, be monitored by the Court, as she has no trust the working of the UP Government and is highly being influenced by the minister (Source: Live Law).
12th August, 2016
The Allahabad High Court directed the CBI to step into this case and start the investigation as it was not satisfied with the investigation conducted by the state police (Source: Live Law).
29th August, 2016
The Supreme Court Bench consisting of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice U.U. Lalit, on the petition filed by the minor girl, framed questions to be addressed by this Court.The Court passed a stay order against the investigation in this case by the CBI and ordered to transfer of this case to another state.Further, the Court appointed Mr. Fali S. Nariman as amicus curiae to give his assistance to the Court in addressing the questions framed.
8th September, 2016
The Supreme Court lifted the stay on the CBI probe and allowed them to investigate as per the law. The Court also accepted the request by the CBI to be a party to this case.The Court ordered the Allahabad High Court to stop the proceedings in this case as the entire case was taken up by the Supreme Court (Source: Live Law).
27th September, 2016
The Supreme Court Bench ordered the CBI to serve notices to the minister asking him to give explanations for his alleged statements on the Bulandshahr gang-rape incident (Source: Live Law).
8th November, 2016
Azam Khan, the minister in the then Uttar Pradesh Government, denied that he made such alleged controversial statements, i.e., the Bulandshahr gang-rape incident to be a conspiracy by the opponent party in light of the upcoming elections, at a press conference. His denial was presented before the Supreme Court by his lawyer, Mr. Kapil Sibal.The amicus curiae, Mr. Fali S. Nariman, suggested the Court to order the news organisations, who already published articles and reports stating that the minister made such statements, to submit the audio recording of that press conference.The amicus curiae also submitted to the Court a comprehensive report on this case in which he viewed that the minister would be liable under the law of torts by citing the judgements delivered by the Supreme Court of Canada and the Supreme Court of the United Kingdom (Source: Live Law).
17th November, 2016
The Supreme Court directed the Minister to unconditionally apologise for his controversial statements in an affidavit and gave two weeks of time to submit the said affidavit to the CourtThe Court decided that a woman’s dignity should not be compromised and directed the Uttar Pradesh State Government to admit the minor survivor of the gang rape in the nearby central school of her father’s choice. Not just the admission, but also the fees and expenditures for her education shall be borne by the State Government.The Court also stated that the victims can also obtain the required help from the Central Government.Furthermore, the Court imposed a duty on the school, where the child was admitted, to ensure that her dignity is not tarnished (Source: The Hindu).
6th December, 2016
The Supreme Court was not satisfied with the apology affidavit of the minister on the grounds that his apology was conditional and, hence, refused to accept the same. The Court found the apology conditional because it states that the minister apologises if the victim has got hurt for his statements, which were claimed to be twisted by the media (Source: Live Law).
16th December, 2016
The Supreme Court accepted the minister’s fresh apology affidavit. In this regard, the Court cited the relevant paragraph from the said affidavit: “If by any statement made by him, the petitioner has felt insulted or humiliated, then he unconditionally and without reserve expresses his sincere and heartfelt remorse in this regard” (Source: Live Law).
20th April, 2017
The Supreme Court referred this case, which involves a major question of law, i.e., whether a minister can make such statements which have a great chance of interfering with the then-ongoing investigation, to a Constitutional Bench (Source: Live Law and The Hindu).
5th October, 2017
The Supreme Court referred to a Constitutional Bench as an issue of formulation of a policy providing a code of conduct for the ministers or any other persons holding public offices as well as prescribing penalties for making controversial statements (Source: Live Law).
Provisions and concepts involved
The entire case mainly deals with various intricacies of the belowmentioned constitutional provisions and concepts. It would be easier to understand the case if one has basic knowledge about the same. So, let us look into those.
Article 19(1)(a)
This constitutional provision guarantees freedom of speech and expression to every Indian citizen, not to foreigners. This fundamental right is crucial in our country because the absence of it would result in the collapse of the democratic setup. In our country, rulers or the political executive are elected by the people and the essence of democracy lies in the fair conduct of elections by people with informed and wise decisions, which will happen only when there is a free political discussion.
A citizen can express his or her views, convictions, feelings, etc. on any subject matter in any mode of communication like newspaper, social media or even by gestures. The State will ensure that the citizens of this country are not restricted from their free speech. However, such free speech is subject to Article 19(2), which allows the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom under certain circumstances.
For more information about the freedom of speech and expression, please refer to additional resources or legal texts.
Article 19(2)
Every freedom mentioned in Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India has reasonable restrictions and, hence, is not an absolute right. In any modern and organised society, there would not be any absolute rights because it may violate the rights of fellow beings and lack of social control could lead to societal imbalance. Therefore, under Clause (2) of Article 19, the Parliament can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on any of the following grounds;
To maintain the sovereignty and integrity of India;
To ensure the security of the State;
To foster friendly relations with the foreign states;
To uphold public order;
To uphold decency or morality;
To prevent contempt of court;
Defamation; and
Incitement of an offence.
If any restriction made by the Parliament is questioned before a court of law, the court will adopt the test of reasonable restriction and assess whether it is arbitrary or reasonable.
For more information about the reasonable restrictions, click here.
Article 21
This provision confers to every Indian citizen as well as foreigners the right to life and personal liberty and ensures that it is not violated by executive and legislative actions. However, this right can be deprived if a law dictates so, provided the procedure established by such law should be just, fair and reasonable and should be as per Articles 14 and 19.
Articles 32 and 226
The framers of the Constitution believed that merely granting fundamental rights without providing remedies for their violation would be meaningless. Hence, the right to constitutional remedies is provided under Article 32 of the Constitution as a fundamental right empowering the Supreme Court of India to deal with the cases where remedies for the violation of fundamental rights are sought and issue appropriate writs, directions or orders accordingly. Similarly, Article 226 empowers the High Courts in various states of India to issue writs. Thus, the Supreme Court and High Courts have writ jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 226 respectively.
The principle of collective responsibility
The principle of collective responsibility is the basic principle of a parliamentary form of government. Articles 75(3) and 164(2) of the Constitution embody this principle obligating the council of ministers at the centre and state respectively to be collectively responsible towards their respective legislatures for their general activities relating to any affairs of the State. This means that the council of ministers acts as a team, and every decision they make is considered a joint decision taken by all its members. Though a difference of opinions exists within the cabinet, this principle mandates each member to support all decisions of the cabinet not just in the legislatures, but also requires them to publicly support these joint decisions. This ensures unity and discipline among the council of ministers.
Constitutional tort
When a tortious act is committed by a government or public servant, it is deemed to be a constitutional tort and, in such cases, the State will vicariously be held liable. Certain constitutional provisions, such as Articles 294(b) and 300(1), address the state’s liability for the constitutional torts committed by its employees. Once an action for constitutional tort is commenced, the claimant should prove the tortious acts committed by government employees would result in constitutional tort and, once it is proved, the State will be ordered to pay damages to the claimant.
Questions raised in Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023)
Question No.1 – Whether the Court can impose restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression beyond the existing reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India by invoking any other fundamental rights.
Question No.2 – Can a fundamental right under Article 19, i.e., the freedom of speech and expression, or Article 21, i.e., the right to life and personal liberty, be enforced against anyone other than the ‘State’ or its instrumentalities?
Question No.3 – Whether the State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of the citizens under Article 21 of the constitution even if it is against a threat to the liberty of the citizen by the acts or omissions of another citizen or private agency.
Question No.4 – Whether the statement of a minister, traceable to any affairs of the State or for protecting the Government, should be attributed vicariously to the government itself, especially by following the principle of collective responsibility.
Question No.5 – Whether a statement made by a minister, which is inconsistent with the rights granted to the citizen under Part III of the Constitution, i.e., the fundamental rights, constitutes a violation of such fundamental rights and is actionable as ‘constitutional tort’.
Arguments presented by both parties
Arguments presented by the petitioner
Submissions by the learned amicus curiae, Ms. Aparajita Singh
Senior Counsel Ms Aparajita Singh acted as amicus curiae and gave her assistance to the Supreme Court for this case. The written submissions for the said questions made by the learned counsel before the Supreme Court are briefed below.
Question No.2 – Generally, the duty to protect and enforce the fundamental rights is on the State and, therefore, the said rights are enforced by the aggrieved party against the State in case of its violation. It is a good sign that the ambit of the expression “state” as defined under Article 12 of the Constitution is increasing to obligate as many entities as possible to not infringe the citizens’ fundamental rights. However, a few fundamental rights, such as rights under Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution and some inherent rights of Article 21 like the right to a clean environment, can be exercised even against the entities which do not fall under the ambit of Article 12 by virtue of usage of the word “person” instead of the “state” in the said provisions. Nevertheless, it is pertinent to note that, as far as the word “state” is mentioned in any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution, the State has the constitutional obligation to not only protect citizens’ fundamental rights but also to ensure that even the private persons and entities do not violate them, even if no existing law imposes such obligation on the State. Just because a person or entity, who infringed the fundamental rights of a citizen is a private person or entity, it does not mean that the courts are ignorant of such violation. The learned counsel cited a few instances where private persons were held liable for infringing the citizens’ rights. Cases cited were Bodhisattwa Gautam vs. Ms. Subhra Chakraborty (1995), where the Court resorted to the public law remedy by imposing an interim compensation against the private entities, and M.C. Mehta vs. Kamal Nath & Ors. (1996), where the Court awarded damages to the aggrieved parties whose right to a clean environment was violated by non-state actors.
Question No.3 – The fundamental rights are both negative as well as positive rights. Those are positive rights because the State is under obligation to protect the rights from being violated or infringed. Such a positive obligation of the State is clearly explained by the Supreme Court in the case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2018). The State cannot take a defence stating that they are not in a position to implement the fundamental rights due to the reasons which are not in their hands as decided in S. Rangarajan vs. P. Jagjivan Ram (1989). The learned counsel also cited the case of Pt. Parmanand Katara vs. Union of India & Ors. (1989) where the Court held that the doctors in Government hospitals are also obligated to enforce the constitutional duty of the State under Article 21.
Question No. 4 – The learned counsel contended that the cabinet minister acts on behalf of the State during their official duty or activities and, thus, the State can be made liable for the acts done by the cabinet minister. The counsel further suggested that it would be unreasonable if the minister, who acts for the State, himself violates the right under Article 21 and is immune from any liability when the State itself is the one who should protect it from being infringed. Furthermore, the counsel stated that the alleged violation should be determined by the court by considering the facts of the case such as when the minister made such an alleged derogatory statement – during personal or official capacity, what kind of matter is the alleged gangrape incident – public or private matter and where did the ministered uttered such statements – private or public place. Stating this, the counsel referred to cases like Amish Devgan vs. Union of India (2020) where the court highlighted the considerable impact and influence of the person holding a government position; in State of Maharashtra & Ors. vs. Sarabgdharsingh Shivdassingh Chavan & Anr. (2010), the State was made responsible for the Chief Minister’s unfair interference with the investigation of a case; the case of Secretary, Jaipur Development Authority, Jaipur vs. Daulat Mal Jain (1996) and Manoj Narula vs. Union of India (2014) clearly explains the constitutional duties of the Ministerial office, though such code of conduct is not enforceable as laid down in R. Sai Bharathi vs. J. Jayalalitha & Ors. (2003). The learned amicus curiae finally argued that the ministers, whether in the centre or state, must act in accordance with the duties of the State prescribed in the Constitution.
Question No.5 – The State is an imaginary entity and, hence, requires a human agency to function in a society. Therefore, a group of persons, bodies and other instrumentalities constitute a state. Similarly, the State Government is said to function through its cabinet ministers and other public servants. With this analogy, the learned counsel argued that the State would be held liable under the constitutional tort for the wrongs committed by its agencies, including ministers and cannot escape its liability by resorting to the principle of sovereign immunity as it is inapplicable in matters of infringement of fundamental rights of the citizens. In this regard, the counsel referred to cases, Smt. Nilabati Behera alias Lalita Behera (Through the Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee) vs. State of Orissa & Ors. (1993) and Common Cause (A Registered Society) vs. Union of India (2018), where the principle of state liability is discussed.
Submissions presented by the learned counsel Mr. Kaleeswaram Raj
Advocate Kaleeswaram Raj appeared on behalf of the petitioner in the Special Leave Petition and submitted comprehensive written submissions. The submissions made by the learned counsel before the Supreme Court are briefed below.
The main argument from the petitioner is the formulation of a code of conduct for those political personalities who are holding public offices while exercising the right to freedom of speech and expression to ensure better accountability and transparency in their day-to-day activities as their every utterance will affect the government policy. The Counsel also requested that the code of conduct must be in line with the constitutional morality and norms of good governance. He also argued that, along with a code of conduct, there is a dire need to set up an appropriate mechanism like the ombudsman to be vigilant about the misuse of the said right by public servants. Till such a position is created, the National and State Human Rights Commissions should take proper steps according to the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Regarding the principle of collective responsibility, the petitioner referred to Articles 75(3) and 164(2) of the Constitution and argued that, though the wording of these provisions conveys that the collective responsibility of the council of ministers should be towards the cabinet and legislature of centre or state, the essence of the provisions is that such responsibility should be towards the general public at large. This makes the aforesaid code of conduct constitutionally justifiable as it is in the best interests of the people. The Counsel also pointed out that such a code of conduct exists in the developed democracies in the world.
The petitioner stated that a new restriction cannot be added to the freedom under Article 19 by the court while exercising the interpretation function and referred to the case of Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. & Ors. vs. Union of India (1961), where the Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech can be restricted only in the interest of security of the State, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality or concerning contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. Stating this, the petitioner contended that, though a new restriction cannot be inserted into the freedom under Article 19, a code of conduct to regulate the speeches of the public functionaries is a need in the current state of affairs.
The petitioner stated that the countries in the world are gradually shifting to welfare governance from laissez faire governance because of this the role and responsibility of the State to enforce and protect the fundamental rights is increasing. In many countries like South Africa, Ireland, Canada and Germany, the concept of the horizontal application is followed i.e., the fundamental rights can be exercised not only against the State but also against private persons. Whereas, in India, horizontal application is not followed for all fundamental rights, but only for Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. However, the Supreme Court issued various writs against private persons under Article 32 in various instances; provided
Such private persons are performing public functions; or
Such private persons are performing statutory functions that affect the citizens’ rights.
From this, the petitioner contended that it is evident from many notable cases, including M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India & Ors. (1986), that the Court can exercise its writ jurisdiction against the above-mentioned private persons.
Finally, the petitioner highlighted that there is no conflict between two fundamental rights in the present case. Rather, the question before the Court is whether there can be any constitutionally valid restriction imposed on the ministers and public officers to regulate their speech and expression.
Arguments presented by the respondent
The Attorney General of India, R. Venkataramani, along with the Solicitor General of India, Tushar Mehta, represented the respondent – Union of India. Their brief submissions for the said questions are given below.
Question No.1 – The Attorney General stated that the existing reasonable restrictions provided under clauses (2) and (6) should always be considered exhaustive and a court has no authority to add more rules or criteria to impose any restriction other than those mentioned in the said clauses, as it is a legislative function. Such a thing cannot be done by the court even with the help of another fundamental right because, in a constitutional scheme, one fundamental right or freedom cannot come into conflict with the other. Although if two fundamental rights are conflicting in a particular case and come before the court to decide which fundamental right is greater or more important to be protected, the court always tries to balance both the fundamental rights and exercise two of them simultaneously.
Question No.2 – The Attorney General said that, in the Constitution of India, a few fundamental rights can only be exercised against the State and/or its agencies, whereas a few other fundamental rights are available even against persons or bodies other than the State or its agencies such as Articles 15(2), 17, 23 and 24 of the Constitution. Any addition to this arrangement would amount to ‘constitutional change’, which has the effect of endless constitutional litigation. He further said, “Claims against persons other than the State, either through enacted law or otherwise must be confined to constitutionally enacted subjects or matters.”
Question No.3 – The Attorney General firmly stated that there is no obligation on the part of the court to provide additional protection to the citizen under Article 21 if it is infringed by any person, especially if the citizen adequately has the protections such as constitutional and legal remedies. If a citizen wants to enforce fundamental rights on the grounds of their infringement, the constitutional remedies can be availed by the citizen under Article 32 of the Constitution of India by approaching the Supreme Court of India and Article 226 by approaching the High Courts in India.
Question No.4 – The learned Attorney General confirmed that the conduct of the persons holding public offices like ministers is subject to judicial review and the court is allowed to adjudicate upon the same. He further clarified that a punishment can be inflicted upon such persons if the misconduct or malfeasance, including statements, is proved to be committed under the colour of the office and the government cannot vicariously be held liable following the principle of collective responsibility, if the said misconduct is not a statutory violation, i.e., not a breach of public duty and a duty related to the affairs of the State, as the misconduct will be deemed as an individual wrong or violation. The Attorney General noted that the Supreme Court can grant compensation to the persons whose constitutional rights are infringed due to the misconduct of the public officers in cases like Kasturilal Ralia Ram Jain vs. The State of Uttar Pradesh (1964) and Rudul Sah vs. State of Bihar & Anr. (1983) and, further, brought to the notice of the court that there is a need to give a conceptual basis for better clarity and certainty which may be better if given through a statutory enactment.
Question No.5 – The principle of constitutional tort emerged in the case of Smt. Nilabati Behera alias Lalita Behera (Through the Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee) vs. State of Orissa & Ors. (1993) and was made applicable in various matters to provide constitutional remedies. The Attorney General raised a concern regarding the need to bring an appropriate legal framework so that the principles and procedures are unambiguously provided with no room for vagueness.
Judgement in Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023)
On 3rd January 2023, a constitution bench comprising Justice S. Abdul Nazeer, Justice B.R. Gavai, Justice A.S. Bopanna, Justice V. Ramasubramanian and Justice B.V. Nagarathna answered all the questions that came before it and clarified all the ambiguity as to the constitutional provisions raised by the parties to the petition. The exact answers given by the Supreme Court for the questions are given below.
Questions addressed by the Supreme Court
Supreme Court’s holding
Whether the Court can impose restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression beyond the existing reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India by invoking any other fundamental rights.
“The grounds lined up in Article 19(2) for restricting the right to free speech are exhaustive. Under the guise of invoking other fundamental rights or under the guise of two fundamental rights staking a competing claim against each other, additional restrictions not found in Article 19(2), cannot be imposed on the exercise of the right conferred by Article 19(1)(a) upon any individual.”
Can a fundamental right under Article 19, i.e., the freedom of speech and expression, or Article 21, i.e., the right to life and personal liberty, be enforced against anyone other than the ‘State’ or its instrumentalities?
“A fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.”
Whether the State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of the citizens under Article 21 of the constitution even if it is against a threat to the liberty of the citizen by the acts or omissions of another citizen or private agency.
“The State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of a person under Article 21, whenever there is a threat to personal liberty, even by a non-State actor” and “the importance of the right to personal liberty over and above all the other rights guaranteed under Articles 19 and 14 need hardly to be over-emphasized.”
Whether the statement of a minister, traceable to any affairs of the State, should be attributed vicariously to the government itself, especially by following the principle of collective responsibility.
“A statement made by a Minister even if traceable to any affairs of the State or for protecting the Government, cannot be attributed vicariously to the Government by invoking the principle of collective responsibility.“
Whether a statement made by a minister, which is inconsistent with the rights granted to the citizen under Part III of the Constitution, i.e., the fundamental rights, constitutes a violation of such fundamental rights and is actionable as ‘constitutional tort’.
“A mere statement made by a Minister, inconsistent with the rights of a citizen under Part III of the Constitution, may not constitute a violation of the constitutional rights and become actionable as Constitutional tort. But if as a consequence of such a statement, any act of omission or commission is done by the officers resulting in harm or loss to a person/citizen, then the same may be actionable as a constitutional tort.”
The ratio decidendi of the judgement of the case
Let us look at the issue-wise ratio decidendi of the Supreme Court in delivering such a judgement in the case of Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023).
Exhaustiveness of the restrictions provided in Article 19(2)
The first question in this case addressed by the Supreme Court is whether the Court can impose restrictions on the right to free speech beyond the existing reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India by invoking any other fundamental rights.
Historical evolution of Article 19(2)
Before answering this question, the Court turned back to look into the history of the evolution of Article 19(2) of the Constitution.
Constituent Assembly debates
The Court first discussed the constituent assembly debates as well as the development of Clauses (1) and (2) of Article 19 by looking at various reports and draft constitutions submitted by the Drafting Committee to the President. The relevant draft constitution for the present discussion is the one drafted and submitted in February 1948 (BSR III, 522), where Article 13(2), the present Article 19(2), mentions “any other matter which offends against decency or morality or undermines the authority or foundation of the State” as one of the ground to restrict the free speech.
Cases referred by the Bench
After reviewing the Constituent Assembly debates, the Court examined several landmark judicial decisions by the SC. The cases referred by the court include:-
The Court discussed the case of Romesh Thappar vs. State of Madras (1950). In this case, the respondent argued that a statutory restriction on the circulation of a weekly journal fell under the ‘security of the State’ as outlined in Article 19(2). This restriction was imposed by the Government of Madras under Section 9(1-A) of the Madras Maintenance of Public Order Act, 1949, which aims to ‘secure public safety or maintenance of public order’. The Supreme Court responded that such statutes, which use broad terms like public safety and maintenance of public order as grounds to restrict fundamental rights, cannot be upheld as reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) because these terms go beyond what the Constitution prescribes. A similar holding was made in the case of Brij Bhushan & Anr. vs. The State of Delhi (1950).
Amendments to Article 19(2)
Following these two landmark decisions, the legislature amended Article 19(2) through the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. This amendment, which was given retrospective effect, introduced several restrictions, including friendly relations with foreign States, public order, and incitement to an offence. It also added the term ‘reasonable restrictions’, mandating the adoption of a test of reasonableness. This test and the factors to be considered for determining the reasonableness of a restriction were clearly explained by the Supreme Court for the first time in the case of State of Madras vs. V.G. Row (1952).
By exercising the right under Article 19(1)(a), there may be a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of India. This was recognised by the National Integration Council and its committee’s recommendations because of which a new restriction, namely “the sovereignty and integrity of India” was added in Clause (2) of Article 19 by the Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act, 1963.
Whether the restrictions mentioned in Article 19(2) are exhaustive
The first part of question no.1 is whether the reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) are exhaustive or whether any other additional restrictions can be imposed by the State on the freedom of speech and expression.
Upon careful review of these statutory provisions, it becomes clear that the restrictions mentioned in Article 19(2) are sufficient to cover all possible threats to society and are therefore exhaustive. This reasoning has already been given by the Supreme Court in previous cases such as Express Newspapers Pvt. Ltd. & Ors. vs. The Union of India & Ors. (1985) and Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. & Ors. vs. Union of India (1961), where the Court affirmly ruled that any restriction imposed by the State on free speech which does not belong to any of the grounds mentioned in Article 19(2) is said to be constitutionally invalid. The Court further highlighted that not only the State but also its agencies cannot inflict any restrictions which are not mentioned in Clause (2) as decided in the case of Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors. vs. State of Kerala & Ors. (1986). The Court stated that even the courts, along with the State and its instrumentalities, are not allowed to widen the scope of Article 19(2) or add more grounds through the power of interpretation. It is apt to mention the Supreme Court’s observation, in this context, in Ram Jethmalani & Ors. vs. Union of India & Ors. (2011). The Court observed: “An argument can be made that this Court can make exceptions under the peculiar circumstances of this case… There is an inherent danger in making exceptions to fundamental principles and rights on the fly. Those exceptions, bit by bit, would then eviscerate the content of the main right itself”.
Furthermore, the Court also pointed out the restrictions on free speech prescribed in various other countries, namely the United Kingdom, the United States of America, Australia, the European Union and the Republic of South Africa, stating that they are very similar to those of India. To check the comparative analysis, see Para 31 of the judgement.
The Court, thus, concluded that the reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) are exhaustive and the competent authority makes laws authorising to imposition of restrictions, which are in line with the grounds mentioned in Clause (2) of Article 19, on the freedom of speech and expression is the State, not the courts. Regarding its authority, the Supreme Court clarified by stating that “the role envisaged in the Constitutional scheme for the Court, is to be a gatekeeper (and a conscience keeper) to check strictly the entry of restrictions, into the temple of fundamental rights. The role of the Court is to protect fundamental rights limited by lawful restrictions and not to protect restrictions and make the rights residual privileges.”
Whether any other new restrictions on free speech be imposed by invoking other fundamental rights
The second part of question no.1 is whether any other new restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression can be imposed on grounds other than those provided in Article 19(2) by invoking other fundamental rights.
The Court said that this question was partly answered in the case of Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. & Ors. v. Union of India (1961). In this case, the Court held that no freedom or fundamental right is greater than another and, hence, the State cannot curtail or restrict one right for the sake of better enjoyment of another fundamental right.
The Supreme Court agreed with the submissions made by the learned amicus curiae regarding the application of the doctrine of balancing fundamental rights. This doctrine is applied by the courts when two or more fundamental rights conflict in a given case, as reflected in various precedents. The Court also noted that the fundamental principle of any law is to declare such a code of conduct where an individual should enjoy his or her fundamental rights in such a way as to ensure that the fundamental rights of other individuals have not been affected. All individuals in a society can peacefully exercise their respective fundamental rights if they sensibly and responsibly act by respecting other citizens’ rights. Indeed, mutual respect, the sense of accommodation and brotherhood are inherent in one of the features of the Preamble of the Constitution i.e., in the word “fraternity”.
Precedents referred
The Court referred to a few precedents where Articles 19(1)(a) and 21 were in conflict and examined the observations made by the Supreme Court in those cases. The cases referred and the court’s observations are given below.
Case referred
Fundamental rights which are in conflict
Relevant Court/Judge’s observations
Rajagopal vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1994)
Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to privacy of government servants under Article 21
The Court laid down a general rule that the personal aspects of an individual such as his family, marriage, and procreation, among other aspects, cannot be made public without the individual’s consent. However, there is an exception to this general rule. Any person can comment, whether appreciation or criticism, on any matter which is published as “public records”, which also includes the judgements given by the court. However, if a public record involves the dignity and modesty of women who are victims of sexual offences, kidnapping, abduction, or similar offences, then the media and individuals are restricted from freely discussing such sensitive matters. This is to protect the dignity of these women.
People’s Union of Civil Liberties (PUCL) vs. Union of India (1996)
The voters’ right to information under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to privacy of a spouse of an electoral candidate
Justice Venkatarama Reddi expressed the opinion that the right to information should be prioritized, as it serves the broader interests of the public. Consequently, the right to privacy should be considered secondary to the voters’ right to information.
Noise Pollution (V.), in Re
Using louspeakers by exercising Article 19(1)(a) and right for an pollution-free environment under Article 21
Individuals causing noise argued that their actions are protected by the freedom of speech and expression granted under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. However, the court affirmed that this freedom is not absolute. It ruled that individuals cannot create noise, for instance, by using loudspeakers and forcing others to listen to their speech. Such actions violate the neighbours’ right to peacefully enjoy their property and to have an environment free from noise pollution. The Court observed that Article 19(1)(a) cannot defeat Article 21.
Ram Jethmalani & Ors. vs. Union of India & Ors. (2011)
The right to know of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to privacy of foreign bank account holders under Article 21
The Court observed that, in a democracy, citizens have the right to be informed about the activities of the State, ensuring transparency and accountability. However, this right cannot be exercised against fellow citizens in a way that infringes on their right to privacy. Such infringements can lead to an undesirable social order.
Sahara India Real Estate Corporation Ltd. vs. Securities and Exchange Board of India (2012)
Freedom of the press under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to a fair trial under Article 21
The Court observed that the right to a fair trial under Article 21 is an appropriate restriction on the free speech of people and media. Dealing with the publicity postponement order, the Court held that such an order, for a temporary period, can be passed against the press only in exceptional cases where the administration of justice and fairness of trial will be disturbed if not passed.
The right to know of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to privacy of cooperative bank account holders under Article 21
The Court held that the privacy of a few individuals cannot be breached as their information did not serve any greater purpose than the public interest. If there is a significant public interest involved, then individuals may be required to disclose information; otherwise, their privacy should be protected.
Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) and the right to dignity and reputation of a fellow person under Article 21
The Court held that a person is not allowed to enjoy his right to free speech in such a way which tarnishes the reputation of another person because free speech is a qualified right and should be exercised without defaming another. Here, it is to be noted that “defamation” is present in Article 19(2).
Based on the precedents mentioned earlier, the Supreme Court observed that it is evident that the court will strike a balance when two fundamental rights conflict with any situation and, further, held that the freedom of speech and expression cannot be restricted by involving other fundamental rights which are beyond Article 19(2). Justice B.V. Nagarathna, in her separate opinion, concurred with the majority’s conclusion and the ratio decidendi about the first question.
Enforceability of fundamental rights against non-state actors
The second question considered by the Supreme Court in this case pertains to the enforceability of fundamental rights under Article 19 (freedom of speech and expression) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) against entities other than the ‘State’ or its instrumentalities.
The underlying question as observed in the Court is whether the fundamental rights have vertical or horizontal effects. Before answering the question, the court gave the meaning of these terms stating that every country in this world follows both these approaches, as given under.
Vertical effect: When a constitutional provision regulates only those dealing where one of the parties is the State and/or its agencies, the provision is said to have a vertical effect of application. This approach gives more emphasis to individual autonomy, choice and privacy.
Horizontal effect: When a constitutional provision regulates only those dealing where both the parties are private persons or entities, the provision is said to have a horizontal effect of application. This approach aims to maintain constitutional values and sense in every individual.
Position in other countries
The Court analyses various U.S. Supreme Court cases like Jones vs. Alfred H. Mayer Co. (1968) and Shelly vs. Kraemer (1948). In these cases, the U.S. Supreme Court gave more preference to constitutional rights over contractual rights to protect African and Asian Americans from racial discriminative contracts by upholding the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment of the American Constitution and, thus, binding private persons to follow constitutional obligations. From this analysis, the Court conclude that the U.S.A. also started adopting the horizontal approach.
Whereas, the Irish Supreme Court interpreted that its constitutional rights have a full horizontal approach one such example is John Meskell vs. Córas Iompair Éireann (1973), where the private players are been awarded to compensate an employer for violating their right to form associations and unions.
In the South African Constitution, many rights are conferred on citizens simultaneously obligated every person, not just the State, to not violate the same. The Supreme Court referred to various constitutional provisions and their interpretations made by the Constitutional Court of South Africa, where the fundamental rights of citizens, in case of their violation, are enforced against non-state actors obligating them to not intervene with the rights of fellow people.
Position in India
After examining all the provisions mentioned under Part III of the Constitution, the Supreme Court of India concluded that some of the fundamental rights such as rights under Articles 15(2)(a) and (b), 17, 20(2), 20(3) 21, 23, 24 and 29(2) are enforceable against non-state actors if they are violated.
Precedents referred
The Court referred to a few precedents made by the Supreme Court to understand the evolution of the court’s stance on the enforceability of fundamental rights against non-state actors. The cases referred and the court’s observations are given below.
Petitioner’s shares are sold by the respondent by exercising their right to lien. Petitioner contended that his rights under Article 19(1)(f) and 31(1) are infringed.
Articles 31(1) and 21 shares a common phrase, “except by procedure established by law”. This implies that, if private entities violate these rights, the State is not obliged to follow them and, hence, a writ would not lie in these cases. This view was reiterated in the case of Smt. Vidya Verma vs. Dr. Shiv Narain Verma (1956).
Whether Articles 14 and 16 are enforced against a statutory corporation
Justice K.K. Mathew, in his separate but concurring opinion, observed that if a private person’s act of violating others’ rights is not supported by the State, it is not a State action and, hence, the State cannot be liable for the same.
Whether rights under Article 24 be enforced against contractors
The Court held that the State is under a duty to ensure that the contractors are abiding by the constitutional provisions. Because Article 24 is enforceable against every person, the Court decided that these fundamental rights can be enforced against the entire world.
The Madras High Court revoked the ‘U’ certificate of a Tamil movie, which was supported by the Tamil Nadu Government on the grounds of the public protests to ban that movie.
The Court expressed surprise at the reasons given by the Tamil Nadu Government and, under the constitutional duty to protect fundamental rights, held that the State shall protect the rights which are conferred upon them with no consideration of the public opinion and their protests. The Court decided that the inability to maintain public order was no excuse.
Discussed and distinguished the applicability of the doctrine of sovereign immunity in cases of torts committed by its agencies and infringement of fundamental rights.
Justice Dr A.S. Anand, in his separate but concurring opinion, emphasised the provision of pecuniary compensation and viewed it as a public law remedy rooted in the concept of strict liability. The justice also observed that such compensation, which is usually exemplary damages, sets as a punishment on the wrongdoer and also a liability on the State for failing to perform its public duty of protecting the rights of the people. He further clarified that this public law remedy is available to the aggrieved party in addition to civil and criminal remedies.
The Court held that the State shall be made accountable by compensating the aggrieved citizens who suffered an injury due to the arbitrary and ultra vires acts of the government of employees
Monthly maintenance by the husband during the pendency of the prosecution
The Court held that this was a case of violation of the woman’s right under Article 21 and, thus, directed the accused husband, a non-state actor, to pay monthly interim compensation to the aggrieved wife
The liability of a club owner, the private person, to compensate for the environmental damage
The Court applied the “polluter pays principle” and “precautionary principle” and ordered the private person to pay the costs to restore the environment to its original condition.
Compensation as a remedy in the exercise of the writ jurisdiction under Article 32 or Article 226
The Court observed that compensation is the most practical and inexpensive remedy available for the State or its agencies’ act of violation of fundamental rights.
Working women filed a class action petition to enforce their right to gender equality and to prevent sexual harassment towards a working woman in her workplace
The Court set out guidelines to enforce the right to gender equality of working women. Such guidelines are not only obligates the State but also for private employers. The Supreme reiterated its direction in the case of Medha Kotwal Lele & Ors. vs. Union of India (2013) and ordered State functionaries and private and public sector bodies to immediately set up such mechanisms as mandated by Vishaka guidelines.
The provisions of Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 and Section 19(b) of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, which confers the father as the natural guardian of their child and the properties in the name of the child, are challenged as the separated mothers faced issues. As per the provisions, the mother will be the natural guardian only “after the father”.
By invoking the mothers’ right to dignity and gender equality under Articles 21 and 14 respectively, after examining various aspects of this issue, including the international conventions, the Supreme Court decided to interpret the word “after” used in the provisions as “in the absence of”.
Army College of Medical Sciences admits only children of army personnel by conducting an entrance test. Non-army personnel challenged this policy as it is discriminative towards them and violates Article 15.
The Court observed that, when you read Article 15(2), along with Preamble and Articles 14, 15, 16, and 38, it is understood that the educational institutes, though the private body, should manage their institutions in such a way that they do not promote discriminate the classes who are already facing discrimination.
Whether Section 12 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, which mandates the public and private schools to allot one-fourth of the seats to marginalised people was constitutionally valid and whether the provision violates Articles 19(1)(g) and 30 of those who had established private schools
The Court held that the said provisions, along with international conventions, obligate the State to not only confer but also protect the rights of children, even against non-state actors, to ensure that there is no infringement of those rights.
The flight crew disrespectfully instructed the petitioner, who is suffering from cerebral palsy, to get off the flight that belongs to SpiceJet Airline, a private company, due to his disability.
The Court ordered the private Airlines to compensate the petitioner for violating his fundamental rights of dignity, equality, and free movement, among other rights. Furthermore, the Court stated that the Union of India, Respondent 1 in the present case, is under obligation to see that the citizens’ rights are protected and are not violated and ensure that the citizens, especially differently-abled persons, do not face humiliation and discrimination.
The question of whether BCCI is the State for the sake of enforcing fundamental rights against them is raised in this case.
The Court declared that BCCI did not meet the criteria to be considered a State as per Article 12. Therefore, one cannot enforce fundamental rights under Article 32 against BCCI. Further, the Court provided remedies in case of violation of citizens’ fundamental rights by BCCI, namely by approaching ordinary courts of law or filing a writ petition before the High Court under Article 226. The Court observed that “the violator of a constitutional right could not go scot-free merely because it is not a State.”
The Court substantially relied on the decision made by the nine-judge Supreme Court Bench in the case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2018), it stated that there are two kinds of rights, namely common law rights and constitutional rights, including fundamental rights, and interests can be treated as both common law rights and constitutional rights. The Court further ruled that, if the constitutional rights are violated by the State and its agencies, remedies can be sought under Articles 32 and 226; if the violator is a private person or body other than the State, a common law action would lie in an ordinary court of law.
Finally, in response to the second question, the Supreme Court stated that part of the answer to this question is found in the K.S. Puttaswamy case. The Court’s final answer was that “a fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.”
The obligation of the State to protect Article 21 over Article 19
The third question considered by the Supreme Court is whether the State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of the persons under Article 21 of the constitution even if it is against a threat to the liberty of the citizen by the acts or omissions of another citizen or private agency.
The Court noted that the expression “State” is not mentioned in Article 21; it just says “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty”. This implies that the State is responsible for ensuring that this right, as outlined in Article 12, is not violated for any person unless it aligns with the procedure established by law. At the beginning of our independence, the essential services which involve one’s right to life are only provided by the State alone. But, now, even private players are allowed to provide such services to the public. Additionally, inherent rights under broader rights, such as the ‘right to life’ under Article 21, have expanded over time due to court interpretations and precedents. These changes led the courts to modify the test or the deciding elements for allowing a writ petition. Initially, the test was to identify who the respondent is- if the respondent is the State, the writ petition is maintained; otherwise, it is dismissed. But, now, the test followed by the court to see whether a writ petition is maintainable or not is to check the functions or duties the respondent was performing and its effect on the people’s rights.
The Court decided to firstly examine the concept of personal liberty as contemplated by Article 21 and its deprivation by non-state actors, and then answer the main question of the State’s duty to protect the same. The Court wants to confine itself to the discussion of the ‘right to personal liberty’, besides the ‘right to life’, as the main question involves the former.
The Court referred to a few precedents made by the Supreme Court to understand the evolution of the court’s interpretation of the expression “personal liberty”. The cases referred and the court’s observations are given below.
The Court held that the expression “personal liberty” implies liberty of a person from physical restraint and coercion which is not the procedure provided in statutory laws. Therefore, as per Article 21, the Court held that every person has the freedom from unauthorised arrest and detention.
Justice K. Subba Rao, in his minority opinion, observed that, in an advanced and civilised society, psychological restraints are more effective than physical restraints in terms of human psychology. Therefore, personal liberty not only protects physical movements from being restrained but also guards against intrusions into one’s private life.
The right of locomotion and the right to travel abroad are also included in Article 21 by the Court, which was later upheld by a seven-judge Bench in Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978). The Court further held that the “liberty” in Article 21 is similar to the “liberty” mentioned in the Fifth and the Fourteenth Amendments of the U.S. Constitution and excludes the liberties mentioned and provided under Article 19.
The Court held that the hospital is not liable for violating the right to privacy of the HIV patient as the disclosure of this private fact potentially saved his fiancee’s life. However, the Court also emphasised the right to privacy as a part of the bundle of rights under Article 21 and the doctors are under moral as well as legal obligation to maintain confidentiality between him and the patient. The Court also clarified that a patient’s right to privacy is not absolute and can be curtailed to protect the rights of others.
The Court referred to a few cases where the Supreme Court discussed the obligation of the State to protect the fundamental rights, which are given below.
The Court addressed a complaint regarding the inhuman work conditions of the bonded labourers in stone quarries. The maintainability of the writ petition was questioned in this case. The Court responded by stating that the issue pertains to the socio-economic order. Regardless of whether the workers are bonded, the Court should investigate such complaints for instances of forced labour. Based on the findings, the Court should further direct the State to take appropriate measures to ensure social and economic justice.
While issuing directives, the Court noted that the State has constitutional and statutory duties to protect the aggrieved group from assaults by another mob.
The Court held that telephone tapping is said to be an intrusion into one’s private life and, hence, is violative of the right to privacy. It can be infringed only in case of the procedure established by law, not otherwise.
The Supreme Court, by referring to this case, stated that the judgement was delivered at that time, i.e., in the year 1997, when mobiles were a privilege, not a new normal to the very common man, and also telecommunication services were mostly a monopoly by the State. But, now, the situation took a sea change. Most of the service providers are private companies. By observing this, the Court stated that the right to privacy of the persons will be at risk if it is not exercisable against non-state actors.
The freedom of choice in marriage is inherent in Article 21 and the State, including the police machinery, is duty-bound to protect the same. The Court further held that the duty of the State does not end when compensating the victims, but is also mandated to rehabilitate them for their protection. A similar emphasis was made in Shakti Vahini vs. Union of India & Ors. (2018).
Most importantly, the Supreme Court referred to Justice Rohinton Nariman’s observations in the case of Mohd. Arif @ Ashfaq vs. Registrar, Supreme Court of India & Ors. (2014). In this case, the learned Justice regarded life at the top in the imaginary pyramidical structure, after which personal liberty, which includes all the judicially recognised bundle of rights, comes second.
From the above-mentioned court’s observation and reasoning given, the Supreme Court in the present case concluded that “the State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of a person under Article 21, whenever there is a threat to personal liberty, even by a non-State actor” and “the importance of the right to personal liberty over and above all the other rights guaranteed under Articles 19 and 14 need hardly to be over-emphasized.”
Obligation of the State for a minister’s statements
The first question considered by the Supreme Court in this case was whether the statement of a minister, traceable to any affairs of the State or for protecting the Government, should be vicariously attributed to the government itself, especially by following the principle of collective responsibility.
Initially, the Court examined the role of a minister as contemplated by our constitutional scheme. The Court reviewed Part V and Part VI and Articles 74, 75, 75(3), 77, 77(3) and 78 which deal with various aspects of Central legislature. Similar provisions concerning State legislature are provided under Articles 163, 164, 164(2), 166, 166(3) and 167 respectively.
When the issue of “collective responsibility” arises, one would refer to Articles 75(3) and 164(2) which state that the council of ministers are collectively responsible towards Lok Sabha, in the case of the Union ministers, or State Legislative Assembly, in case of the State ministers. The Court in the present case contemplates that the said provisions are referring to the decisions and activities of the council of ministers, not every statement given by them.
Precedents referred
The Court examined several precedents set by the Supreme Court to understand the previously established interpretations of the concept of collective responsibility and state liability. The cases referred and the court’s observations are given below.
while dealing with Article 166(3), the Court stated that “the cabinet is responsible to the Legislature for every action taken in any of the Ministries. That is the essence of joint responsibility.”
In the present case, the Supreme Court noted that the Court in the Sanjeevi Naidu case used the expression “joint responsibility”, not “collective responsibility”.
The Court, while interpreting Article 164(2), observed that the purpose of the concept of collective responsibility is to hold all individuals in ministerial positions vicariously accountable for the actions, decisions, and policies enacted by other ministers, even if those ministers are not personally liable. The Court further highlighted that this concept has a political purpose, origin and operation. The Court also stated that, by convention, the minister may be compelled to resign from office due to his wrongful acts and decisions; however, the only way to enforce the said collective responsibility is by way of withdrawal of political support by members of the Parliament or State Legislative Assembly, as the case may be, due to the pressure of the public opinion.
From the above court’s interpretations and observations, the Supreme Court, thus, concluded that “the only sanction for the enforcement of collective responsibility is the pressure of public opinion”.
The Court clearly explained the duties of the Council of Ministers. It was said that the council of ministers hold their respective ministerial office until they maintain the confidence of the majority in the Parliament or Legislative Assembly, as the case may be. They are also required to maintain secrecy and confidentiality. Furthermore, the Court emphasized that every minister, regardless of their personal views on government policies, is required to publicly support all policies and decisions made by the government to ensure effective governance. If any minister is unable to support the government policies, the only option he has is to resign from his office. Therefore, as long as the minister is holding his office, he must support the decisions of the cabinet.
The Court held that, though all executive functions are performed in the name of the Governor and with the assistance of the bureaucrats, still every minister is answerable to the people by being personally as well as collectively responsible for the governmental policies and decisions. Furthermore, the minister in question will be liable for his actions and policies, given that he holds a public office in a democratic society. Therefore, their liability is joint and several.
The Court held that the minister cannot escape his liability just because his activities are performed in the name of the President, who has immunity under Article 361. The minister in question contended that the President’s immunity would also apply to the orders issued in his name under Clause (1) or (2) of Article 77.
Based on the interpretations by the Supreme Court in various instances, the Court made the following observations in the present case:
The concept of collective responsibility as contemplated in the Constitution of India is primarily political.
Such collective responsibility is attributed to the council of ministers, whether Union or the State, as the case may be. By this, it means that each minister is responsible for the actions and decisions togetherly taken by members of the council of ministers, not otherwise.
The responsibility of the council of ministers is towards the legislatures, i.e., the Lok Sabha in the Parliament for the Union, or the State Legislative Assembly for the State.
Such responsibility would, generally, arise due to two things- decisions taken by a minister and acts or omissions.
Finally, the Court concluded that “it is not possible to extend this concept of collective responsibility to any and every statement orally made by a Minister outside the House of the People/Legislative Assembly.”
Regarding the prayer for the formulation of a code of conduct for ministers, the Court observed that it would not be compatible to implement such a code in courts. However, there is already an existing mechanism, that is, disciplinary proceedings, to make ministers, or for that matter any government servant, accountable for their misconduct or violation of service rules. In addition to this, the Court held that “even in the case of Government servants, it may not be possible to justify a dismissal/removal from service based on a statement uttered by a Government servant, as it may not pass the proportionality test, viz-a-viz the gravity of the misconduct.”
Moreover, the Court also noted that while the Prime Minister or Chief Minister is considered the head of the council of ministers, it is practically impossible for them to exercise disciplinary control over ministers, particularly in a coalition government.
From the court mentioned above’s observation and reasoning given, the Supreme Court in the present case concluded that “a statement made by a Minister even if traceable to any affairs of the State or for protecting the Government, cannot be attributed vicariously to the Government by invoking the principle of collective responsibility.“
The Supreme Court also clarified that the interpretations and observations in the present case pertain solely to collective responsibility, not the concept of hate speech. The Court is not endorsing or encouraging ministers to make irresponsible statements or engage in hate speech, and then seek refuge under the inapplicability of the concept of collective responsibility.
Whether a minister’s statements amount to a constitutional tort
The question no.5 in this case considered by the Supreme Court is whether a statement made by a minister, which is inconsistent with the rights granted to the citizen under Part III of the Constitution, i.e., the fundamental rights, constitutes a violation of such fundamental rights and is actionable as ‘constitutional tort’.
The Court noted that the above-given question just said “a statement made by a minister”. Whether a statement amounts to constitutional tort or not depends upon when, where and how such statement is made, which is not mentioned in the question.
Furthermore, the Court stated that mere utterances of a minister cannot form the basis of a constitutional tort action even though it lacks constitutional morality. Also, the Court noted that “needless to say no one can either be taxed or penalised for holding an opinion which is not aligned with the constitutional values”. In conclusion, the Court ruled that a minister’s statements, in and of themselves, do not constitute a constitutional tort. However, if such statements result in harm or injury, a constitutional tort action may be maintainable, before which the Court went through the definition of tort as given by Halsbury’s Law of England. It explained tort as “Those civil rights of action which are available for the recovery of unliquidated damages by persons who have sustained injury or loss from acts, statements or omissions of others in breach of duty or contravention of right imposed or conferred by law rather than by agreement are rights of action in tort.”
Precedents referred
The Supreme Court had a detailed perusal of Paragraph 66 of the First Report of the Law Commission on the topic “Liability of the State in Tort” for a better understanding of the concept of constitutional tort. In 1967, based on this report, the Government (Liability in Torts) Bill was introduced in the legislature. However, it did not become an Act. As a result, the responsibility of developing the law fell on the courts in India, which had to rely on judicial precedents. Some of the judicial precedents and important observations by the Supreme Court are given below.
In this case, a government servant filed a case against the State for recovery of arrears of salaries. The Supreme Court rejected the State’s plea of the doctrine of pleasure and held that this doctrine is inapplicable in India.
In this case, the widow, who was grievously injured by a government vehicle, filed a claim for damages against the State. The State defended itself by invoking the principle of sovereign immunity, which traditionally protects a state from being sued without its consent. The Court held that, since the rule of sovereign immunity was made inapplicable in the United Kingdom, the place where the rule originated, there is no legal warrant to continue following this rule in India, especially when this country adopted our constitution.
Kasturi Lal’s gold jewellery was seized by the police upon his arrest. However, it was misappropriated by the Head Constable, who then to Pakistan. Kasturi Lal sued the State for the recovery of the value of the gold jewellery and the State claimed no liability. The Court held that, if a government servant commits a tortious act that was not delegated or assigned by the State, then the victim has the right to sue for damages.
Rudul Sah vs. State of Bihar (1983)
In this case, the Supreme Court ordered the State to pay monetary compensation to a prisoner who spent 14 years of imprisonment even after being acquitted of the offences he was charged with.
Similarly, in the cases of Sebastian M. Hongray vs. Union of India, (1984), Bhim Singh, MLA vs. State of J&K. (1985), Peoples’ Union for Democratic Rights vs. State of Bihar & Ors. (1987), Saheli, a Women’s Resources Centre through Ms. Nalini Bhanot & Ors. vs. Commissioner of Police, Delhi Police Headquarters & Ors. (1990), Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee through its Hony. Secretary vs. State of Bihar & Ors. (1991), Nilabati Behera (Smt.) alias Lalita Behera (Through the Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee) vs. State of Orissa & Ors. (1993), Arvinder Singh Bagga vs. State of U.P. & Ors. (1994), N. Nagendra Rao & Co. vs. State of A.P. (1994), Inder Singh vs. State of Punjab & Ors. (1995), Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity & Ors. vs. State of W.B. & Anr. (1996), D.K. Basu vs. State of W.B. (1997), People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India & Anr. (1997) and Municipal Corporation of Delhi, Delhi vs. Uphaar Tragedy Victims Association & Ors. (2011), the Supreme awarded compensation or damages to the aggrieved party who was injured due to the tortious or wrongful acts of the State or its servants.
From the above-mentioned court’s observation and reasoning given, the Supreme Court in the present case concluded that “A mere statement made by a Minister, inconsistent with the rights of a citizen under Part III of the Constitution, may not constitute a violation of the constitutional rights and become actionable as Constitutional tort. But if as a consequence of such a statement, any act of omission or commission is done by the officers resulting in harm or loss to a person/citizen, then the same may be actionable as a constitutional tort.”
Justice B.V. Nagarathna’s separate opinion in the case of Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023)
Justice B.V. Nagarathna, one of the judges in the case of Kaushal Kishor vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2023), though agreed with the reasoning and conclusions to a few questions by the majority, gave a separate opinion on the given questions to give a distinct opinion and reasoning on other questions. The conclusions to each question by Justice B.V. Nagarathna are provided below.
Questions addressed by the Supreme Court
Supreme Court’s holding
Conclusions by Justice B.V. Nagarathna
Whether the Court can impose restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression beyond the existing reasonable restrictions provided under Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India by invoking any other fundamental rights.
“The grounds lined up in Article 19(2) for restricting the right to free speech are exhaustive. Under the guise of invoking other fundamental rights or under the guise of two fundamental rights staking a competing claim against each other, additional restrictions not found in Article 19(2), cannot be imposed on the exercise of the right conferred by Article 19(1)(a) upon any individual.”
The answer given by the majority to question no.1 is completely agreed and there is no separate conclusion on the same.
Can a fundamental right under Article 19, i.e., the freedom of speech and expression, or Article 21, i.e., the right to life and personal liberty, be enforced against anyone other than the ‘State’ or its instrumentalities?
“A fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.”
There can be no horizontal approach in the case of the rights under Articles 19 and 21, except those which were statutorily conferred. Thus, these fundamental rights cannot be enforced against non-state actors by way of writ petition because the matter involves questions of fact. However, common law remedies are available to the aggrieved party.
Whether the State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of the citizens under Article 21 of the constitution even if it is against a threat to the liberty of the citizen by the acts or omissions of another citizen or private agency.
“The State is under a duty to affirmatively protect the rights of a person under Article 21, whenever there is a threat to personal liberty, even by a non-State actor” and “the importance of the right to personal liberty over and above all the other rights guaranteed under Articles 19 and 14 need hardly to be over-emphasized.”
The State primarily has a negative duty, along with an affirmative duty, not to violate the right to life and personal liberty as per Article 21. If such a right is violated, it is said that the State failed to carry out its duties.
Whether the statement of a minister, traceable to any affairs of the State, should be attributed vicariously to the government itself, especially by following the principle of collective responsibility.
“A statement made by a Minister even if traceable to any affairs of the State or for protecting the Government, cannot be attributed vicariously to the Government by invoking the principle of collective responsibility.“
The minister’s statements, if consistent with the government’s views and attributed to any affairs of the State, would make the State vicariously liable following the principle of collective responsibility and appropriate remedies must be granted to the aggrieved party. If the statement is inconsistent with the government’s views or is not endorsed by the government, then only the minister will be made liable personally.
Whether a statement made by a minister, which is inconsistent with the rights granted to the citizen under Part III of the Constitution, i.e., the fundamental rights, constitutes a violation of such fundamental rights and is actionable as ‘constitutional tort’.
“A mere statement made by a Minister, inconsistent with the rights of a citizen under Part III of the Constitution, may not constitute a violation of the constitutional rights and become actionable as Constitutional tort. But if as a consequence of such a statement, any act of omission or commission is done by the officers resulting in harm or loss to a person/citizen, then the same may be actionable as a constitutional tort.”
Not all statements made by public servants that resulted in the injury of another person would amount to constitutional tort. It depends upon the government’s views and whether it endorses such statements. Furthermore, it is felt necessary to have legislation on this matter to remove vagueness and to clearly define constitutional tort mention remedies and lay down a redressal mechanism for the same.
Conclusion
Our constitution has ensured that every citizen is entitled to their basic rights and freedoms in the form of fundamental rights and has also laid down certain restrictions on the freedom of the citizens to ensure that the rights of fellow people are not violated and, thus, balance is maintained. Similarly, the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is also subjected to restrictions by Article 19(2). Making efforts to strengthen these restrictions by other fundamental rights like Article 21 is slowly chipping away at the right to free speech that is guaranteed to all citizens. In a constitutional democracy like India, a judge’s role is to defend the rights of the citizens and strike a balance between the conflicted rights. The Courts in India are not authorized to add more restrictions on civil liberties, it is the job of the legislature. Today, if the Court allows restrictions on free speech based on dignity due to its inconsistency with Article 21, tomorrow there could be other reasons that judges might consider to limit the citizens’ freedom. Therefore, in the present case, the Supreme Court, held that the restrictions under Article 19(2) are comprehensive enough to cover a speech or statement made towards a rape victim.
Besides this, the Supreme Court also answered many crucial questions. The Court held that the obligation to protect and preserve one’s fundamental rights is cast upon the State and can be enforced against State as well as non-state actors. The Court also ruled that the State cannot be made liable for every utterance made by a minister; however, if such speech causes harm or injury, then it may be considered a constitutional tort and an action against the State would lie.
The Indian Legal System has been struggling with long-lasting litigation procedures coupled with the immense number of cases burdening the judiciary. Hence the famous quote: “No man’s life, liberty, or property is safe while the legislature is in session.” by Mark Twain, an American writer. However, the new legislation, the Mediation Act, 2023, is one of the steps towards the dismissal of prolonged cases in court by the choice of the parties. Although mediation has always been there since the introduction of alternate dispute resolution, it has been the only one left out to be formalised into legislation apart from arbitration and conciliation, except for a few honourable mentions here and there in certain legal enactments such as the Motor Vehicle Act, Domestic Violence Act, Commercial Courts Act, etc.
This Act has introduced a formalised dispute resolution in India and promoted mediation as a viable and effective alternative option for the parties apart from traditional court battles and arbitration procedures of around a year.
Mediation
Mediation is a structured process where two or more parties having a dispute over a subject matter come together to negotiate with each other and resolve the issue through a neutral third party, also known as the mediator. This third party, a mediator, helps the parties in disputes to come to an agreement with mutual understanding and settle the dispute within the parties without resorting to any lengthy proceeding before the court.
Here, the settlement/agreement reached by the parties with the help of the arbitrator is amicable and without any sort of influence, pressure, or coercion. Unlike judges who state the orders and direct the parties to comply with the court decisions, the mediators guide the conversation between the parties and encourage them to open communication and try out creative ways to resolve the matter. This collaboration between the mediator and the parties in dispute leads to a unique solution that fulfils their needs and interests and ultimately resolves the dispute.
The Mediation Act: a legislative framework
Before the Act, mediation existed in a fragmented legal space. Its procedure, enforceability, and implication were often unclear, especially regarding the procedure or grounds to challenge the mediated settlement agreement in case of misrepresentation, creating hesitancy among parties to fully engage in the process and build complete reliability.
But most recently, the Mediation Act of 2023 has been passed by the Parliament. But as we talk about the implementation of the Act, it has yet to. This Act lays down a comprehensive legal framework for mediation in India, which had been missing for so long till date. Till this Act was passed, there was a practice established to be followed for the mediation to take place or settle any dispute through mediation that has to go through the court proceedings first where the court refers the matter to mediation, and thereon, on the basis of that mediation, the resolution or persistence of trial was carried on, except for a few provisions similar to alternate dispute resolution under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Companies Act, 2013, Commercial Courts Act, 2015, etc.
Definition under the Act
Mediation is defined as a voluntary process opted by the parties themselves to resolve their dispute through a neutral third party, i.e., the mediator, and reach an amicable settlement for any sort of dispute, except for disputes mentioned under the first schedule of the Act, that arise between them, which includes pre-litigation mediation, online mediation, community mediation, and conciliation. Yes, you read it right, and it’s true that conciliation is now a part of the Mediation Act 2023. It emphasises the consensual and voluntary nature of mediation and the mediator’s impartial role in facilitating communication and resolving the dispute.
Types of mediation
Court-annexed mediation: The old-school mediation procedure (an established practice over the years) occurs within the court’s or tribunal’s established mediation centre, often initiated by judges.
Institutional mediation: This type of mediation is conducted with the consent of the party, where the parties themselves choose to opt for an institution with their own established centre specialising in providing mediation. In this type of mediation, the mediator, the place for mediation, and any other facilitation for the mediation are provided by the mediation institute itself.
Online mediation: This Act has now formalised and legally defined the online dispute resolution methods via mediation. It utilises technology for the remote participation of all the parties and the participants. It can be utilised by submitting a written application by the parties to the mediation service provider seeking online mediation for dispute resolution.
Community mediation: This Act has now introduced the concept of community mediation. Where any dispute arises among the different families or residents of a community or area, they may reach out for mediation through a written application by any person of the community or area to an authority designated for the said purpose under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, or the district magistrate or the sub-divisional magistrate of the respective areas where the dispute has arisen. A tribunal comprising three community mediators shall mediate the dispute to an amicable resolution, leveraging the local resources to resolve disputes within communities.
International Mediation: Any commercial dispute where at least one party to the dispute is not a national or resident of India, whose place of business is outside India, or is a foreign country’s government, then such disputes may be settled through this type of mediation at the choice of the parties.
Key features of the Act
Appointment of the mediator
This Act gives complete flexibility to parties while choosing a mediator for the amicable resolution of their dispute. Any person regardless of his/her nationality may be appointed as mediator if the parties choose so, or parties may choose to approach a mediation service provider, which will appoint a mediator of the parties’ choice (with preferred skills or qualifications) on the written application from the parties.
Mediator’s termination or replacement
In case a mediator discloses a potential conflict of interest pertaining to the dispute that is being addressed in such mediation, either before or during the mediation proceedings, and any party objects to the same, then the mediator shall be terminated or replaced. Even without any conflict on either party’s written request to the mediator himself or to a mediation service provider in case of non-institutional mediation to terminate or replace the mediator. The Act also empowered the mediation service provider to remove a mediator from the case if there is a reason to believe that there might be a conflict or if the mediator, himself, withdraws for any reason. However, in case of termination due to any reasonable doubt, then the mediator is entitled to the right of hearing to prove the contrary.
Time-bound process
This Act also provides for a time limit to conclude the mediation, i.e., 120 days from the date of first appearance before the mediator. This is supposedly done to avoid the misuse of processes and cases to linger on like in the court, which would ultimately defeat the purpose of this Act. However, this Act also allows the mediator and parties to extend this time limit for another 60 days with the mutual consent of the parties, only if there seems a possibility to resolve the dispute or the mediator feels that the few measures or options could be explored that would likely resolve the dispute.
Conduct and role of mediator
The mediator must be an independent, neutral, and impartial person throughout the mediation process and should never take sides with any party or express personal opinions on the merits of the dispute. He must abide by the principles of fairness and objectivity and adhere to professional and ethical standards as specified under regulations to ensure mediators’ high level of professionalism and conduct.
The mediator’s role is to facilitate open communication between the parties so they may freely present their viewpoints, identify key issues, explore possible compromises each could make, and reach an amicable settlement. Such settlement cannot be imposed upon the parties and must foster a pressure-free or coerce-free agreement. They are also supposed to disclose any sort of interest or relationship to the parties and take approval or no objections from the parties to proceed any further with the mediation.
Mediated settlement agreement and registration
A mediated settlement agreement is a written and duly signed agreement between some or all parties mutually involved in mediation proceedings who voluntarily came to an agreement to settle a certain or all of the disputes brought to be resolved before the mediator. The said agreement must be verified, along with the authentication of signatures of all parties involved, by the mediator along with his own signature. The Mediated Settlement Agreement is legally binding in nature and enforceable on the parties the same as any court decree, so parties can execute the said agreement under provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, like any other court decree. The said agreement is final in terms of the dispute resolved therein, and no further proceedings of any sort would be entertained pertaining to the particular dispute addressed in the Mediated Settlement Agreement. Parties or the mediation service provider can also choose to register the said agreement with an authority constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, or any other body notified by the central government within the time limit of 180 days of receiving the original copy of the agreement.
Under the Mediation Act, 2023, it is not mandatory to register the Mediated Settlement Agreement. However, it certainly provides an option for it and not only for the sake of it, as the same certain has its advantages, such as:
It provides additional evidence of the agreement’s authenticity.
It becomes part of the public record, making it easily verifiable.
It can make the process of enforcement way easier.
Confidentiality
The mediator, mediation service provider, parties, and all other participants (advocates, counsels, advisors, or experts) are liable to maintain the confidentiality of the matters brought to the mediation and whatsoever discussed, advised, admitted, produced, offered, or stated by anyone during that mediation proceeding. Neither of them is allowed to take or record any audio or video recording of the said proceeding.
However, anything stated in the mediated settlement agreement shall not be considered under the confidentiality provision of the Act but rather the necessary part of the terms and conditions to be stated in the agreement. Furthermore, only when any criminal threat or mens rea to commit a crime under the Indian legislative system seems to exist or any professional misconduct on the part of the mediator, it is not covered under the confidentiality provision under the Act.
Termination of mediation and non-settlement report
As and when the parties to the dispute reach an amicable resolution through mediation and have duly signed a mediated settlement agreement with the authentication of the mediator, the mediation itself is then and thereby deemed to be concluded.
But where the mediator, after a thorough attempt to resolve the dispute, determines that no further efforts can foster any result, then he can provide a written declaration to the parties or mediation service provider to terminate the mediation, or any of the parties may also provide a written application/communication to the mediator and other parties and choose to withdraw from mediation.
If no agreement is reached within the prescribed time limit, even then the mediation is automatically terminated. However, in these cases, either a mediation service provider or the mediator himself shall provide a copy of the non-settlement report duly signed by all parties.
Challenges and limitations to enforcement of mediated settlement agreements
The Mediation Act, 2023, states provisions where a mediated settlement agreement could also be challenged subject to certain grounds:
fraudulent means or bribery were involved to reach or obtain the agreement.
Impersonation of another party during the mediation process.
Disputes that were not suitable for mediation as defined by Section 6 of the Mediation Act have been settled in the said agreement.
Furthermore, the Mediation Act also imposes a deadline of 90 days for challenging the Mediated Settlement Agreement from the date of receiving the authenticated agreement. The same could be extended in case parties succeed in convincing the court that the delay was not deliberate but rather a genuine delay.
Mediation service provider and functions
A Mediation Service Provider could be any organisation or authority recognised by the Mediation Council established under the Act. It encompasses a variety of entities that are duly recognised under the Mediation Act:
Mediation bodies or organisations: Any organisation, entity, or body established solely for the purpose of conducting mediation as per the provisions, rules, and regulations of the Act.
Legal services authorities: Any authority empowered solely to provide mediation services and constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Court-annexed mediation centres: Our same old pre-recognised and well-known mediation centres were within the court complexes and operated under the court administration for settling the disputes presented before the court and referred to the said mediation centre.
Government-approved bodies: Any entity, body, or authority recognised or appointed as a mediation service provider by the Central Government via notification through the Official Gazette of India.
Key functions of mediation service providers:
To accredit qualified mediators and undergo the necessary training.
To maintain a panel of accredited mediators.
To connect parties with a mediator from the panel and facilitate the mediation process from beginning to end.
To provide necessary facilities, assistance, and infrastructure, including meeting spaces and administrative support for conducting mediation.
To promote the professional and ethical conduct of mediators through ethical codes, training, and actions against misconduct.
To facilitate this registration process and register mediated settlement agreements.
To raise awareness about mediation and its benefits among the public.
To conduct research on mediation practices and study their effectiveness.
Community focus
Out of many new introductions in this Act, one is “Community Mediation,” wherein the disputes among the locals or the communities within a locality affect the peace and harmony among residents or families within the area/locality/communities and promote a collaborative approach to resolve issues at the grassroots level. It is an entirely voluntary process and emphasises parties’ mutual participation.
The community mediation could be sought by any aggrieved party and may initiate the process by giving a written application with a designated authority under the Act, which includes the Legal Services Authority, the district magistrate, or the sub-divisional magistrate. For the purpose of community mediation, a panel of three community mediators is appointed in a specific locality to oversee the mediation process.
Just like any other mediation process, whenever a successful resolution is achieved, a mediated settlement agreement is executed between all parties and authenticated by the mediators, and in case of no settlement, mediators need to submit a non-settlement report to the authority, district magistrate, or sub-district magistrate.
Mediation Council of India
The Act establishes a central body, called the Mediation Council of India (MCI), that oversees mediation practices, registers qualified mediators, mediation service providers, and mediation institutions, and further promotes institutionalised mediation services, ensuring quality and consistency in the system.
Duties and Functions of the Mediation Council
It aims to promote mediation within India, domestically as well as internationally.
It provides guidelines for the education, assessment, and certification of mediators by mediation institutes.
It provides the professional and ethical conduct of mediation proceedings.
It provides a procedure for registration and potential withdrawal or suspension of a mediator.
It sets standards for the professional and ethical conduct of mediators.
It conducts training programs and collaborates with various stakeholders to enhance mediation proceedings.
It recognises and regulates mediation service providers.
Conclusion
The Mediation Act, 2023, plays a vital role in transforming the nation’s alternative dispute resolution (ADR) landscape. It provides a faster, more cost-effective, and amicable settlement alternative coupled with arbitration to resolve disputes without resorting to lengthy litigation. It introduces a sturdy legal framework, lays down the procedures for training and registering mediators, and further boosts the establishment of mediation institutions for parties to address their disputes directly before the mediator rather than the case before the court just to get the matter mediated later on, further addressing many of the uncertainties and gaps that previously existed in the mediation procedure.
It recognises various types of mediation, from court-annexed to community-based and online, which demonstrates that legislatures had a forward-thinking approach to take care of diverse needs during dispute resolution. It further lays down the principles for effective mediation for dispute resolution and emphasises voluntary participation, confidentiality, and time-bound procedure. The establishment of the Mediation Council of India ensures standardisation and professionalism in the mediation process and practices all over the nation via mediator accreditation and ethical conduct.
However, just like any new legislation, the true test of the Mediation Act will come through its implementation. As this new framework gives more prominence to mediation, it will not only relieve our courts from the overburdening but also boost a more collaborative and harmonious approach towards dispute resolution as a peace-loving society. Legal professionals would also play an immensely crucial role when it comes to the implementation of the Mediation Act, as they would be responsible for utilising and promoting this new framework as a dispute resolution tool and ensuring that clients and society get the most benefit out of it.
This article is written by Arya Senapati. It attempts to analyse the recent landmark case of Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma (2020), which finally settled the question of the retrospective effect of Section 6 inserted to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005. The analysis involves the factual matrix, legal issues, arguments advanced, judgement, other related cases, and legal principles involved in the case.
Table of Contents
Introduction
Affirmative action is one of the primary constitutional principles enshrined in the part relating to fundamental rights in the Constitution of India. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality and Article 15 prevents discrimination on various grounds. In the context of gender, the Constitution guarantees gender equality and freedom from all forms of discrimination against women. To achieve these goals, the Constitution necessitates the creation of special laws and policies that shall function as affirmative action aimed at reducing years of systemic oppression and inequalities meted out to women.
In the arena of property rights, Hindu joint family property, which is often referred to as coparcenary property, is governed by the Mitakshara system of law. This system is orthodox in its approach and doesn’t allow women to be a part of the coparcener and thereby limiting their interest in the property. This idea was reflected in the initial Hindu Succession Act, 1956 which dealt with intestate succession (succession of the property of a person who dies without any testamentary disposition) and covered only the interests of male coparceners.
To correct this gendered injustice, the Parliament brought about the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 which replaced the Section 6 of the original Act. The new amended provision allowed coparcenary rights and interests to women and ensured that they had equal interest in the property as their male counterparts. It stated that daughters, just like sons, shall attain coparcenary rights by birth and will be subject to the same rights and liabilities towards the property as sons. The provision also dealt with a lot of other aspects in terms of the applicability of the provisions.
With the introduction of the Amendment, the courts have welcomed this as a progressive step but it has also led to a lot of confusion in the field of judicial interpretation. The primary question that the courts dealt with was whether the provision would be applicable retrospectively or prospectively. As a general rule, all amendments have a prospective effect unless the provision expressly or impliedly mentions the possibility of retrospective application. This confusion over interpretation led to differing views by different courts and benches. While some held that it could be retrospectively applied, the majority denied the idea.
It led to a series of cases like Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) and Danamma vs. Amar (2018)which also dealt with other questions like ‘Whether it is necessary for both the father and the daughter to be alive during the commencement of the amendment for the applicability of the provisions?’ and ‘Can the provisions be applicable to pending cases before courts after the amendment commenced?’. While the judgements were in conflict with each other, the final decision on the questions or the final interpretation came in the case Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma (2020), in which the Supreme Court clearly stated that the provision is neither retrospective nor prospective in nature; it is rather retroactive in nature and must be construed or applied accordingly. It also clarified that there is no necessity for both father and daughter to be alive during the commencement of the law for the law to be applicable to them.
Historical background
The Hindu idea of dharma is influenced by the principles of Vedic Aryans. In terms of Hindu laws, there are two primary schools, which are Mitakshaa and Dayabhaga. Mitakshara is divided into Benaras, Mithila, Maharashtra, and Dravida. Mitakshara School therefore applies region-wise.
When Hindu law states are silent on certain aspects, the judicial decisions fill those gaps and therefore Hindu law has never been static but rather progressive. As time passed, the need for codification was felt, especially for women’s rights, so as to eradicate certain anomalies and unscrupulous principles.
Constitutionally, women were given equal status and the written law was subject to amendments from time to time to reflect constitutional ideals. The most recent amendment was the 2005 amendment, which granted equal rights to daughters and sons in matters of succession of coparcenary property.
Facts of the case
In this case, the deceased coparcener is Shri Dev Dutt Sharma, and he left one widow, one daughter, and three sons after his death. He passed away on the 11th of December, 1999. One of his sons who was unmarried, also died on 1st July, 2001. Post this, the daughter, Vineeta Sharma, who is the petitioner in this case, filed a suit claiming 1/4th share in the coparcenary property.
The other members of her family denied her claim and stated that, considering her father passed away in 1999, which is much before the amendment came into force, she cannot be held to be a coparcener and therefore has no entitlement over the property of the family. They also argued that, considering she was married, she has no claim left to the family property as she is no longer a member of the joint family. Vineeta Sharma sued her brothers, namely Rakesh Sharma and Satyendra Sharma, alongwith their mother. She claimed coparcenary rights to the joint family property based on her birth into the family. The law guarantees and considers birth as a valid source of attaining coparcenary rights.
The plaintiff was aggrieved by the decision made by the Trial Court which denied her equal shares in the coparcenary property. She challenged the decision through an appeal to the Delhi High Court. The Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Trial Court, which held that the Section 6 of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, will not be applicable to the current situation as the father of Vineeta Sharma was not alive during the commencement of the amendment. This decision was based on the ruling of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) in which it was held that both the father and the daughter must be alive during the commencement of the Amendment of 2005 for the amended provisions to be applicable. This decision aggrieved the daughter, owing to which she filed an appeal to the Supreme Court of India to reconsider the matter and reach a judgement.
Trail of cases and decision
To understand the judgement of this case, it is important to understand the previous judicial journey of the legal issue at hand, which is regarding the retrospective application of the provisions of the Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, as amended by the 2005 Amendment. There are largely two cases in which the Court substantiated its opinion on the matter and that formed the crux of the issue. Those two cases that must be examined are the cases of:
Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015)
In the case of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015), Phulavati, the daughter of the deceased had claimed her share in the joint family property based on her status as the daughter of the coparcener. In a suit for partition and separate possession, she claimed a 1/7th share in the self-acquired property of her deceased father. During the pendency of the suit, the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, was passed, which conferred equal coparcener rights to sons and daughters and stated that daughters attain the right to be considered as a coparcener by birth into the family. After the amendment, Phulavati claimed equal shares in the coparcenary property. The Trial Court denied equal shares to Phulavati. This decision was challenged by her in the Karnataka High Court.
The grounds of her challenge were that, by virtue of the new amendment, she is an equal coparcener and has equal rights and liabilities with respect to the coparcenary property as do her brothers. Based on this principle, she is entitled to the same number of shares as her brothers. The brothers, originally the defendants, argued that the amended provision would not be applicable in the case as the father of the plaintiff died before the commencement of the amendment and therefore it must be construed as the old provision and not the new one. As per the defendants, the only one that was applicable on the date of opening of the succession will be the one that shall be used to ascertain the shares of the plaintiff.
The High Court decided in favour of Phulavati, the plaintiff and held that even when suits are pending during the commencement of the amendment, the amended provisions shall be applicable to ascertain the final decision on the matter, as it was held by the Apex Court in the case of G. Sekar vs. Geetha and Ors. (2009). The Apex Court, in the previously mentioned decision, held that the changes in a law will inevitably apply to suits that are pending and such applicability will not be considered to have a retrospective effect. Therefore, based on the amended provisions, the daughter, who is the plaintiff in this case, is entitled to an equal share of the property and is a coparcener by virtue of her birth. It also stated that it is immaterial whether the father was alive during the commencement of the Act or not. The only possible exception to this principle is a partition that has effectively taken place before the date of 20.12. 2004 and has attained finality by virtue of a registered partition deed or a court decree, which must be final in nature. The current case, however, doesn’t fall under the exception.
Aggrieved by this decision, the defendant filed an appeal to the Supreme Court. They challenged the retrospective application of the provision by the High Court and also prayed that the fact that her father was not alive during the commencement of the amendment must be a ground for detaching her status as a coparcener. The respondent, Phulavati, argued that since the legislation is a social legislation aimed at uplifting women and allowing them equal access to property rights, it is important to place emphasis on the retrospective application of the provision for meeting the ends of justice and fulfilling the objectives of the legislation.
The Supreme Court confined its decision to the issue of retrospective application of the provision and stated that the 2005 Amendment would not be applicable to this case as the father of the respondent was not alive during the commencement of the amendment. It is important for a coparcener to be alive for another person to attain the rights of coparcenary from them. Therefore, it can be said that when the amendment took place, she was not the daughter of a coparcener, as her father had passed away before the amendment and she cannot be treated as a coparcener because of the said reason.
The Apex Court upheld the principle that it is a general rule to apply an amendment retrospectively unless and until a contrary intention appears either expressly or impliedly from the provision to enable retrospective application. While interpreting such applicability, the Court must limit itself to a plain reading of the language of the provisions and must constitute a harmonious construction of the content and context of the provisions. According to the Supreme Court, the text and language of the provisions of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, leaves no ground for a different interpretation that allows retrospective application. The provision clearly states that the rights of coparcenary interest devolve upon a daughter on and from the date of the commencement of the amendment. No contrary intention appears from the plain reading, either expressly or impliedly, of the provisions of the Act.
The Supreme Court says that even if the legislation is a social legislation aimed at uplifting women, the general rule of prospective application cannot be altered solely due to that mere fact. Even social legislations do not have any retrospective application unless and until it is expressly or impliedly mentioned in the provision. As per the Supreme Court, the interpretation of the provision must be based on a plain reading of the context and language of the provision and in case of any ambiguity, a rational meaning must be given to the provision by the court itself. When the conflict is between the meaning of a provision and an explanation, harmonious construction must be afforded to the interpretation of the provision. The true meaning in such a case must be derived from the object and intention of the legislature while drafting the legislation.
Based on these rationales the Supreme Court held that the rights under the amendments are applicable only to living daughters of living coparceners as of the date of commencement of the amendment, i.e. 9th September, 2005. It is immaterial when the daughter is born. The life of the father during the commencement of the amendment is the only material factor. Therefore, the respondent, Phulavati, was not entitled to equal shares as she was not a coparcener. The decision of the High Court was reversed.
Danamma Alias Suman Surpur and Anr. vs. Amar and Ors (2018)
In this case, the deceased, Mr. Gurlingappa Savadi, left behind a widow and four children, out of whom he had two sons and two daughters. The appellant, Danamma, was one of the daughters of the deceased. In the year 2002, Amar, the son of one of the deceased’s sons, filed a suit for a partition and for separate possession of the property. He denied the claims of both of the daughters towards an equal claim to the property on the ground that both of the daughters were born prior to the enactment of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, and therefore, they cannot claim the status of a coparcener or any interest in the property. He also argued that, considering they had obtained dowry during their marriage, their share was fulfilled effectively.
The Trial Court rejected the argument regarding the dowry but accepted the fact that the daughters were not to be considered as coparceners because their birth was before the enactment of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The High Court upheld the decision of the Trial Court. The Trial Court delivered its judgement in the year 2007 but during the pendency of the suit, the 2005 Amendment was passed, which crystallised the coparcenary rights of the daughters but neither did the Trial Court nor the High Court paid any heed to the amendment. Aggrieved by the decision of the High Court, Danamma appealed to the Supreme Court. Firstly, the Apex Court dealt with the issue of whether daughters can be denied their shares of the coparcenary property on the ground that they were born prior to the enactment of the Act. It referred to its previous decisions and interpreted Section 6 in the light of the decision of the Court in the case of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015). It stated that the language of a provision must be interpreted through a plain reading of the text and the context. By applying this rule, it is clear that the Section 6(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, is prospective in nature, but all other subsections will have retrospective effect.
The Court also stated that an attempt must be made to harmoniously construct the interpretation of the provisions based on the intention of the legislature. In this case, the intention of the legislature is to provide women with equal access to property belonging to a Hindu joint family. Based on this rationale, the Apex Court held that the daughters must be given their shares in the property because they were alive during and after the commencement of the amendment. Therefore, the court held that the fact that a daughter is alive during the commencement of the amendment is material enough to ascertain their shares in the coparcenary property. The next issue that the Court dealt with was whether daughters have equal access to coparcenary property and do they attain coparcenary by birth just like sons. By literally interpreting the plain language of the provisions, the Court stated that the daughters do attain coparcenary in the same way as sons and therefore have access to equal shares as sons. Considering that the intention behind the legislation is to create an equal ground for women to attain coparcenary, it must be upheld that they shall attain coparcenary by birth in the same manner as sons.
This decision created major confusion as the judgement upheld the ratio of the Phulavati case, which stated that in order for a daughter to be a coparcener in a Hindu joint family, both the father and the daughter must be alive during the commencement of the amendment, thereby, strengthening the principle that the amendment is only applicable to the living daughters of living coparceners. The ambiguity is that in the case of Danamma, the father of the appellant had died in 2001, which was prior to the amendment but even after that, the Supreme Court granted equal shares to the daughter. There was a clear conflict between the upholding of a particular principle and the ultimate decision taken by the Court. The Apex Court also did not provide any reasoning behind taking such a decision by applying an exception to the general principle of prospective application.
Ganduri Koteshwaramma & Anr. vs. Chakiri Yanidi & Anr. (2011)
This case dealt with the legal issue of whether the amended provisions will be applicable to a matter that is pending before the court. In this case, the Trial Court was dealing with a matter of partitional and separate possession in which the appellant, the daughter of the deceased, had claimed shares. The Trial Court had already passed a preliminary decree in the matter but the final decree was awaited. In the meantime, the 2005 Amendment was enacted, owing to which, the appellant amended her claims and demanded equal shares in the coparcenary property. Her claim was denied on the ground that she cannot be considered a coparcener because of the fact that her father died prior to the enactment of the amendment.
Aggrieved by the decision of both the Trial Court and the High Court, the appellant challenged the decision in front of the Supreme Court on the ground that the partition was not final as a final decree was awaited by the parties and therefore Section 6 of the amended Act must apply to the matter to ascertain equal shares for her. The Supreme Court stated that a preliminary decree in a partition suit is merely one stage in the decision making process. Until and unless a final decree is passed, the partition is not considered to be ultimate. Therefore, wherever any supervening circumstances arise during the pendency of a suit in which the final decree has not been passed, it is the duty of the court to consider such a supervening circumstance, i.e., an amendment and include it in the final decree. Therefore, the Apex Court held that equal shares must be given to the daughter in the final decree. The Court also has an option of amending the previous preliminary decree or passing a new preliminary decree.
Considering how these three cases led to a lot of confusion regarding various legal issues, it was important for the Apex Court to ascertain the issues once and for all in the case of Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma (2020).
Legal issues involved
There were very substantial questions of law that the Apex Court had to address in the case of Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma (2020) to clear out the air of confusion on various matters:
Whether Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, as amended by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, can be applied retrospectively or prospectively?
Whether it is necessary for both the father and the daughter to be alive during the commencement of the amendment for the provisions to be applicable while ascertaining the shares?
Whether the amended provisions can be applied to a matter pending before a court during the commencement of the amendment?
These issues were considered by the Apex Court in its judgement.
Judgement of the Supreme Court
The judgement is a comprehensive piece of decision which must be divided into various parts for a better understanding of the principles.
Reference to the previous/ pending decisions
The Supreme Court first reffered to the question regarding the interpretation of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 as amended by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 to a larger bench with respect to the confusing and conflicting views taken by two division benches of the Apex Court in the cases of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) and Danamma vs. Amar (2018). The Apex Court first referred to multiple previous decisions on similar questions in its judgement.
The Apex Court took a note of the case of Lokmani & Ors. vs. Mahadevamma & Ors. (2018), in which the Karnataka High Court held that the Section 6 as amended by the 2005 Act must be deemed to have existed since the day of 17.6.1956 which is the date of commencement of the original Hindu Succession Act, 1956. Therefore, it held that the amended provisions are retrospective in nature and could be applied retrospectively to grant equal coparcenary rights to the daughters. It stated that when the daughters are denied rights in the coparcenary property and the suit is pending, then it must be decided by virtue of the amended provisions as they shall be applicable on such matters. The legislation has removed inequality between sons and daughters in terms of access to coparcenary property. The Karnataka High Court further stated that oral partition and partition effected through unregistered deeds are to be removed from the definition of the term “partition,” which has been mentioned in the explanation to the Section 6(5). The final decision was pending before the Supreme Court.
Next, the Apex Court noted that in the case of Balchandra vs. Smt. Poonam & Ors. (2015), the question regarding the retrospective effect of Section 6 as substituted by the 2005 Act was considered. In this case, the father, who was the original coparcener of the Hindu joint family, passed away before the 2005 Act came into force and the question that has arisen ever since is whether can a daughter be considered as a coparcener of the Hindu joint family property even when her father was not alive during the commencement of the amendment Act. The decision in this case was pending and was supposed to be decided by virtue of the principles laid down by the decision of the Apex Court in this matter.
In the case of Sistia Sarada Devi vs. Uppaluri Hari Narayana & Ors. (2018) Special Leave to Appeal (C) No(s). 38542/2016, the question was regarding the fact that wherever a final decree is pending before the court in a partition matter,, can the interest ascertained by daughters on the coparcenary property be re-distributed based on the amended provisions of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
In the matter of Girijavva vs. Kumar Hanmantagouda & Ors. (2019) SLP (CIVIL) Diary No(s). 3401/2019, the question involved was whether the Section 6 as amended by the 2005 Act would be applicable prospectively in the case of the father’s death being before the commencement of the amendment and whether the equal shares claimed by the daughters could be denied on this ground.
In the matter of Smt. V.L. Jayalakshmi vs. V.L. Balakrishna and Ors. (2019), the case arose when a partition of a deceased father’s ancestral property was sought by the petitioner in a suit filed in 2001, wherein the Trial Court granted 1/7th share to all the parties but it was later modified and 1/35th shares were given to the petitioner and other daughters based on the decision of the case of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015).
In the matter of Indubai vs. Yadavrao (2019) and B.K. Venkatesh vs. B.K. Padmavathi (2020) similar questions were raised regarding the status of daughters as coparceners and the grant of equal shares to them.
The Supreme Court recorded that in the decision made by a division bench of the Apex Court in the case of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015), it was held that Section 6 as amended by the 2005 Act will not have retrospective operation and it shall only apply to cases where both the coparcener and his daughter were alive during the commencement of the Amendment Act of 2005. The division bench had also stated that the explanation attached to Section 6(5) necessitates the prerequisites of a valid partition to be registered or to be made through a decree of court but it can have no application to a statutory notional partition made on the opening of succession as provided by the unamended Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The division bench had stated that the fictional/ deemed statutory partition must be assumed to have occurred to determine the shares of the deceased coparceners which is not discussed under the proviso of Section 6(1) or Section 6(5). The prerequisite of registration is inapplicable to the partition which is governed by the process of law and thereby the provisions of Section 6 as amended by the 2005 Act were held to be prospective by the division bench.
In the case of Danamma, the Apex Court had held that the amended provisions of Section 6 provide absolute coparcenary rights provided by Section 6 to daughters and any coparcener, which also includes a daughter, can call for partition of the coparcenary property. It granted equal shares to the daughters as the sons yet it upheld the ratio in the Phulavati case. This has been deemed to be ambiguous in nature.
Arguments of various counsels
The Supreme Court then refered to the various arguments made by different counsels on the matter. The Apex Court had sought an opinion from the government as well as appointed an amicus curiae to help ascertain the matter in conflict once and for all.
Arguments of amicus curiae
Shri Tushar Mehta, learned Solicitor General of India, representing the Union of India, argued that the intention behind the amendment was to provide equal coparcener status to daughters so that they achieved equality with sons. The exclusion of daughters from coparcenary property is an oppressive act that paves the path of discrimination and violates fundamental rights afforded by the Constitution. Even though the Amendment Act of 2005 is not retrospective in nature, it surely is retroactive in its operation as it allows daughters to exercise their rights to be a part of the coparcenary from the commencement of the 2005 Act. Coparcenary accrues from birth and therefore it is a daughter’s birthright. He also clarified that the status of a coparcener being given to a daughter will not have any effect on a partition executed before 20th December, 2004 which is the date on which the bill was tabled before the upper house of Parliament. He argued that the Mitakshara system of law is not only discriminatory towards women but also oppressive. Therefore, with effect from 5.9.2005 which is the date of commencement of the amendment, all daughters attained the status of coparcener by birth and got the same rights and liabilities as sons.
He argued that it was also important to note that, after the amendment, the devolution of coparcenary through survivorship was abolished and currently, devolution happens through intestate succession or testamentary succession. Referring to the decision made by the Apex Court in the Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) case, he argued that the fact that the decision demanded coparcenary rights to accrue to a living daughter from a living father is against the very idea of coparcenary by birth.The death of the father is only material when it comes to the succession of his interest in the coparcenary property, as per Section 6(3) of the 2005 Amendment. The death of a coparcener doesn’t end the coparcenary but rather, notional partition is brought about to ascertain the interests. New coparceners also get added by birth until the time a final partition takes place. Interests in coparcenary property therefore continue until absolute partition is conducted. When the phrase “daughter of a coparcener” is used in Section 6, it does not mean the “daughter of a living father.” Lastly, he argued that any coparcener who relies upon a family settlement or oral partition has to prove the same through valid evidence in the form of reliable documents.
Shri R. Venkataramani, learned senior counsel/amicus curiae, argued that there exists no dispute between the judgements of Phulavati and Danamma, as both of these decisions state that there must be a prospective application of Section 6 as the amendment is prospective in nature. The daughter gets the status of coparcener under the amendment, not because she was born prior to the amendment. By the language of the amended Section 6, no intention for retrospective application applies and even though the intention is to create equality, it doesn’t concern itself with reopening past transactions. He also argued that Section 6 does not intend to reopen any oral partitions or family settlements. If the law treats a daughter born prior to the amendment as a coparcener, it will lead to various confusions in the operation and functioning of the law. As per the learned counsel, the outlook of Section 6 is futuristic and foreseeing and therefore it must be construed as such. .
Shri V.V.S Rao, learned senior counsel and amicus curiae argued that the rationale behind the decision of the Apex Court in Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) has been upheld in the decision of Mangammal @ Thulasi and Anr vs. T.B. Raju and Ors, (2018) , in which it was decided that there should be a living daughter of a living coparcener to receive property on the date of commencement of the amended provisions. When one looks at Section 6(1)(a) it provides a daughter with the status of a coparcener through birth and through such a declaration, a daughter becomes part of a coparcenary and therefore, the question of retrospective or prospective application should not arise because even if a daughter is born before or after 2005, she is still a coparcener by birth. The rights accrue after the amendment. The legislative history of Section 6 makes it clear that the Parliament intended to eradicate the inequalities in accession to property between sons and daughters and this intention vitiates if the necessity of a living father and living daughter is upheld. As per the learned counsel, the necessary requirement for attributing the status of a coparcener to a daughter is that there should be a coparcener from the date of commencement of the 2005 Amendment.
Arguments by appellant
Shri Amit Pai, learned counsel argued that the golden rule of interpretation must be adopted to interpret the provisions. The Amendment to Section 6 relates back to the enactment of the original Act of 1956. A fictional partition on the death of a coparcener cannot be deemed to be equal to an actual partition, which decides the shares once and for all. The Statements of Objects and Reasons clearly mention that daughters cannot be deprived of their right to equality and therefore, the provisions of Section 6 must be fully effective. The decision made by the Apex Court in the Phulavati case is not correct. The language of the provisions does not necessitate the living daughter of a living father to attain a coparcenary. No additional words can be added or read into a statute. The Court has the power to simply repair errors. The provision consists of all daughters, irrespective of whether their fathers are alive on the date of the commencement of the amendment or not.
Shri Sameer Shrivastava, learned counsel, argued that the term coparcener is not defined anywhere in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 but coparcener has been considered to be a body narrower than the joint family as it consists of those people only who have taken birth into it or have attained claims in the coparcenary property and therefore can seek a partition when they want to. Daughters are entitled to shares, subject to the restrictions imposed by Section 6(1) and 6(5). The concept of survivorship has been abolished and the current modes are only through testamentary or intestate succession, wherein a Hindu passes away before the enactment of the Amendment Act. The decision made by the bench in the case of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) which necessitates the principle of a living daughter of a living father, is absolutely ambiguous and cannot be sustained in the eyes of the law. Coparcenary status is given by birth and the only possible exception to that rule can be adoption.
Ms. Anagha S. Desai, learned counsel, argued that Section 6 creates equality of interests between sons and daughters of a Hindu joint family on and from 9th September, 2005. The statement given in Section 6 that the daughter of a coparcener will have equal rights and liabilities as that of a son is unambiguous and unequivocal. The necessity of a living father is irrational, as it defeats the entire purpose of the provision.
Arguments of respondents
Shri Sridhar Potaraju, learned counsel, contended that the decision of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) provided the right construction of the law. He argued that daughters who have been married cannot be recognised as members of their father’s joint family and the fact that they used to be treated as Class I heirs did not make them members of their father’s joint family. As per the learned counsel, the Hindu coparcenary is a smaller body as compared to the Hindu joint family. The daughter of a coparcener has to mean the daughter of a living coparcener. In a situation of a statutory partition, severance of jointness of status and settlement of shares is envisioned.
He argued that the rights conferred by survivorship granted prior to the amendment couldn’t be taken away by the amended provisions. Section 6 in its amended form couldn’t be made applicable on a daughter whose father was not alive during the introduction of the amendment. Coming to the matter of preliminary decree, he argued that a preliminary decree could be used to determine the shares of parties and when the determination of individual shares was allotted to parties through a preliminary decree, it was considered to be final. The only step that was needed to be taken after a preliminary decree was the apportionment of shares through metes and bounds as per the preliminary decree passed.
Considering all these factors, he summed up his arguments by stating that the effect of Section 6 must be prospective in its application.
Coparcenary and Joint Hindu Family
Based on the characteristics of a coparcenary and Hindu joint family, the Supreme Court interpreted that:
A coparcenary is a smaller body as compared to the Hindu joint family. While a joint family consists of all lineal descendants and their wives and unmarried daughters, it ceases to exist after the separation of assets.
Coparcenary consists only of a propositus and three lineal descendants. Before 2005, it consisted of sons, grandsons and great grandsons. The property of a coparcenary is therefore one that is inherited from a father, grandfather, or great grandfather.
As per the Apex Court’s ruling, coparcenary heirs get rights by birth or by adoption. Earlier, a woman was not a coparcener but was part of the joint family. The amendment recognised the coparcenary rights of daughters by birth, just like sons. Only a coparcener has the right to demand partition.
Formation of coparcenary
The Supreme Court stated that a coparcenary is based on common ownership by coparceners. In an undivided coparcenary, shares are uncertain. There’s no precision on the extent of the share. Share is fluctuating as it depends on death or birth in the family.
The Hon’ble Court reffered to the decision of Sunil Kumar & Anr vs. Ram Prakash & Anr. (1988), where it was discussed that a Hindu joint family is bound by the principles of Sapindaship which are essential to the institution of the family. Coparcenary only consists of people who have an interest in the property and can enforce partition and attain status by birth.
Similarly, the Apex Court noted that in Sheela Devi & Ors. vs. Lal Chand & Anr (2006), it was held that whenever the property of a coparcenary goes into the hands of a sole individual transiently, it becomes his property but once a son is born, the coparcenary is revived. Similar observations were made inDharma Shamrao Agalawe vs. Pandurang Miragu Agalwe & Ors. (1988) which stated that a joint family property retains its character even after being in the hands of a single surviving coparcener but once a son is born or adopted, the coparcenary survives.
The case of Controller of Estate Duty Madras vs. Alladi Kuppuswamy (1969), recognised certain characteristics of a Hindu coparcenary. They are the lineal male descendants upto third generation from the coparcenary, the members have the right to demand partition, until partition, each member has ownership over entire property jointly, possession and deriving of benefits from the property is mutual, no alienation of property without consent of all coparceners, the interest of the deceased ends on death and mingles with the property.
As per the Apex Court’s ruling, a coparcenary is a creation of personal law and therefore it cannot be formed by the collusion of parties except in the case of a reunion. It is largely a body corporate or a family institution. Outside the group of coparcenaries, there are other people who form the joint family. The important feature of a coparcenary is aggregate ownership and the fluctuation of shares.
In Vallikannu vs. R. Singaperumal and Anr (2005), it was reiterated that in a coparcener, the shares of each individual fluctuate from time to time depending on the death or birth of coparceners. No individual member of the joint family, while it persists, should be able to predict his exact shares. A coparcener has the: “right by birth, right of survivorship, right to partition, right of joint possession and enjoyment, right to restrain unauthorised acts, right of alienation, right to accounts and right to make self acquisition.”
In Rohit Chauhan vs. Surinder Singh & Ors., (2013), it was held that a coparcener is someone who has equal claims with other members of the coparcenary in terms of inheritance and access to the estates of a mutual ancestor. A coparcener simply has an undivided interest in a coparcener property and has no definite shares.
In the case of Katama Natchiar vs. Srimat Rajah Moottoo Vijaya Raganadha Bodha Gooroo Swamy Periya Odaya Taver, (1863), it was held that the actual partition leads to a coparcener being entitled to a definite share. Until the actual partition, the interest remains undivided.
In Bhagwant P. Sulakhe vs. Digambar Gopal Sulakhe & Ors, (1986), it was held that mere severance of the status of a joint family doesn’t end the coparcenary or common undivided interest in the coparcenary property until an actual partition is effected. In Shankara Cooperative Housing Society Ltd. vs. M. Prabhakar & Ors. (2011), it was held that coparcenary is bound by joint ownership and a suit filed for recovering a property is for the advantage of all the joint-owners. Co-ownership is vitiated only upon actual partition and division occurs.
Based on these cases, the Apex Court ruled that a coparcenary remains undivided until actual partition takes place. Finality of shares is effected through actual partition and not notional partition. Till actual partition, the shares remain undivided.
Unobstructed and obstructed heritage
The Apex Court felt it necessary to refer to the concepts and history of unobstructed and obstructed heritage. It made the following observations on those concepts:
Mitakshara coparcenary has two types of heritages. Unobstructed heritage is also referred to as “apratinbandha daya” and obstructed heritage or “sapratibandha daya”. Whenever a right is created by virtue of birth, it is known as unobstructed heritage. In an unobstructed heritage, the right occurring at birth is acquired from the property of male ascendants. In a situation where the coparcener passes without leaving behind a male heir, the interest is not acquired by birth but by virtue of there being no male descendant and such a right is an obstructed heritage. It is referred to as obstructed because the creation of the right is influenced or obstructed by the life of the owner. Only upon death does an obstructed heritage take place under Section 6, the right is conferred by birth and therefore it is an unobstructed heritage. As per the Apex Court, the right does not depend on the death of the owner and therefore, the need for a coparcener father to be alive on 9.9.2005 is not necessary as per the provisions of Section 6.
Section 6 of the Act of 1956
Coming to the interpretation of the most contentious provision, the Apex Court stated in it’s ruling that Section 6 deals with the devolution of rights in the coparcenary property of the Hindu joint family, which is governed by the Mitakshara legal system. The original version of the provision denied the application of the rule of succession on Mitakshara Coparcenary property and stated that the interest of a coparcener male Hindu who dies post the enactment of the 1956 Act will be ascertained by the rules of survivorship and devolve upon the surviving members of the coparcenary. The exception provided was that if a deceased had left a surviving female relative in Class 1 or a male relative in that class who claimed through a female relative, such an interest would devolve by testamentary or intestate succession to ascertain the shares of a deceased coparcener. Later on, this gendered discrimination was envisaged to be removed via substituting the provision of Section 6 through the 2005 Amendment Act.
The Apex Court observed that post the amendment, a daughter is given the status of a coparcener in the same manner as a son by birth and is subject to the same rights and liabilities as a coparcener. The provision in Section 6(1), however, states that the provisions of the section will not invalidate any disposition or alienation made before 20.12.2004. The amendment makes it clear that it intends to do away with the discrimination. In many states, various state amendments were also made to extend equal rights to daughters.
The amended provisions provide that on and from the date of commencement of the amendment, the daughter is conferred with the right of coparceners in the same manner as the son. Section 6(1)(a) deals with the concepts of unobstructed heritage as envisaged in the Mitakshara Coparcenary. Section 6(1)(b) confers equal rights to daughters as sons. Even though the rights can be claimed from the date of commencement of the amendment, the provisions are retroactive in nature and must be applied retroactively. The benefits conferred by the provisions are based on an antecedent event.
Based on the above rationale, the Apex Court held that while a prospective statute is applicable from the date of enactment and envisions new rights, a retrospective statute functions backwards and takes away or affects vested rights acquired through existing laws. A retroactive statute, on the other hand, does not operate retrospectively but operates in futuro but its operation is based on a character or status that has arisen earlier. Since the provisions provide rights by birth, which is an antecedent event, the provision is retroactive.
Clearing the air of confusion, the Supreme Court stated that in case of the death of a coparcener after 9.9.2005, succession is not governed by survivorship but is governed as per the Section 6(3)(1). The provision to Section 6(1) and (5) saves any partition effects before 20.12.2004. The explanation however, states that partition is recognised only if it is done through a registered deed of partition or by a decree of court.
The concept of uncodified Hindu law as envisaged in unobstructed heritage is given shape in the provisions and therefore, it is not at all necessary for the father of a daughter to be living on the date of amendment for her to receive the rights of a coparcener. The daughter simply enters into the coparcenary as a son by taking birth before or after the Act. These rights can only be claimed from the date of amendment, i.e., 9.9.2005, while saving the partitions made before 20.12.2004.
Effect of enlargement of daughter’s rights
As per the proviso to Section 6 prior to the amendment of 2005, when a coparcener dies, leaving behind a female relation of a Class 1 heir or a male descendant claiming through such a Class 1 female heir, the daughter was one of the heirs. Section 6, in its amended version, presupposed the existence of a coparcenary. It enlarges only the rights of the daughter and the rights of all other relatives remain the same and unaffected, as mentioned in the proviso.
On this concept, the Supreme Court ruled that no coparcener has a fixed share of the property. The shares keep fluctuating based on the death or births of new coparceners. This principle is enshrined in the provisions of Section 6. There is no disruption in the coparcenary by the fictional or notional partition. Notional partition is used merely to ascertain the shares of a deceased coparcener that would have been assigned to him when the actual partition would have taken place.
Acquisition of rights in coparcenary property
Interest in a property is acquired by birth and devolution takes place on the death of a coparcener. Earlier, devolution was governed by survivorship but after 1956, women could also inherit in situations/ contingencies mentioned in the proviso of the unamended Section 6. The notional fiction deemed daughters as coparceners. Coparcenary is by virtue of birth or adoption and not by devolution of interest. The Supreme Court stated that it is unable to accept the contention that a living father passes coparcenary rights to a living daughter because the right to coparcenary does not accrue from the death of the father or any other coparcener for that matter. It is simply governed by birth.
It was contended that if the parliament’s intention was to refer to incidents of births prior to 2005, it would not have enacted the proviso. When the provisions are read together, when the right is conferred upon a daughter of a coparcener by birth, in the same manner as sons, it becomes necessary to save prior dispositions or alienations before 20.12.2004. Therefore, even though the right accrues from birth, it can be asserted only from 9.9.2005. The proviso merely saves the past transactions from any sort of invalidation.
It was heavily contended that if a daughter is given coparcenary rights by birth and is deemed to be a coparcener from a point in the past, it will affect the normal operation of the law and lead to multiple uncertainties. In the opinion of the Apex Court, no such uncertainty will arise as the Section 6 is governed by the principles of the Mitakshara coparceners laws, which makes the shares of surviving coparceners uncertain up until and until the actual partition takes place. No fixed share is held by any party and the interest remains undivided until the actual partition takes place. The conferment of rights from a prior date is not to resurrect the past but to simply recognise the antecedent event as the mode of conferment of rights prospectively. Such an act surely enlarges the size of the coparcenary and prevents the coparcenary from treating the daughters unequally.
In Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015), the father passed away in 1988 and the daughters filed a suit in 1992 for partition, which was dismissed in 2007. The High Court applied the amended provision and treated daughters equally. The Supreme Court later on held that the provision is not retrospective. The necessity of partition being made through registration was held to have no effect on deemed or notional partition on the initiation of succession as per the unamended provision to Section 6. It was held that the rights conferred by the amendment are only applicable to living daughters of living fathers as of 9.9.2005.
The Supreme Court, in its judgement in Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma (2020) opined that may be the previous decision did not pay any attention to how a coparcenary is formed. It is not important for a coparcener to be alive to form a coparcener or become a coparcener. Birth within certain degrees is the only relevant factor. Survivorship is only a mode of succession and not a requirement for the creation of a coparcenary. Hence, the living coparcener necessity was overruled.
In the case of Mangammal vs. T.B. Raju and Ors. (2018), the Apex Court considered the provisions enacted in the State of Tamil Nadu in the Hindu Succession (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act. 1989, which was made effective from 25.3.1989 and added Section 29A, which was held to be correct regarding succession by survivorship. Section 29A provided the same interests to daughters as sons in the coparcenary property. The provisions were kind of similar, except 29A(iv) treated married daughters discriminatorily. The provisions were made inapplicable to daughters who married before the date of commencement of the 1989 Amendment. In Section 6 of the Amendment Act of 2005, even the discrimination against married daughters was removed. However, in this case, the Apex Court upheld the decision of Phulavati and Danamma by upholding the requirement of a living father for a living daughter. Such an opinion cannot be accepted.
In the case of Amar vs. Danamma (2018), the Apex Court upheld the ruling of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015). The Supreme Court, while giving its decision in the instant case, stated that certain observations made in the Amar vs. Danamma (2018) case are agreeable but the part approving the decision of Prakash vs. Phulavati (2015) cannot be sustained. As per the Supreme Court’s decision, there is a clear conflict between the decisions of Phulavati and Danamma with regard to the concept of a living daughter of a living coparcener.
Partition and effect of statutory fiction
Based on the principles of partition, the Apex Court stated that the right to seek partition has been recognised as one of the key features of a coparcenary. Therefore, one of the basic rights of a coparcener is to claim partition. The daughter, having become a coparcener with effect from 9.9.205 creates a significant change in the statutory provisions. Considering that the rights of a daughter are now on the same footing as those of a son, she can also claim partition. The widow of a coparcener is also entitled to an equal share and that right cannot be taken away.
The Supreme Court made a reference to the decision of Hardeo Rai vs. Sakuntala Devi & Ors. (2008), in which it was held that whenever an intention to partition comes to the surface, the shares of each coparcener become clear and ascertainable and once it is determined, each coparcener becomes the owner of their share and has the right to alienate as separate property. The coparcenary property ceases to exist. Without a final partition, only undivided shares can be sold without affecting specific property or joint possession.
Similarly, in Musammat Girja Bai vs Sadashiv Dhundiraj, (1916), it was held that the institution of a suit for partition is a clear reflection of an individual’s intention to sever his ties and separate from a joint family from that date onwards. One caution was added here that if, at a later stage, the law confers a right, or any supervening event takes place, the effect of such an event has to be figured out with a preliminary decree.
In I.T. Officer, Calicut vs. Smt. N.K. Sarada Thampatty (1991), it was held that once the preliminary decree is passed, it on its own doesn’t constitute partition. Actual partition takes place only after the passing of a final decree. In the case of S. Narayan Reddy and Ors. vs. S. Sai Reddy (1990), it was held that until a final decree was passed putting each coparcener into separate possession of separate properties, partition was not complete. A preliminary decree is not capable of creating an actual partition. During the pendency of the final decree, shares can be varied on account of intervening events and therefore a preliminary decree is not irreversible.
In the case of Prema vs. Nanje Gowda & Ors (2011), Section 6A was inserted into the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, by the State of Karnataka through a state amendment. This section gave equal rights to women. The amendment was considered in a pending suit where only a preliminary decree was passed and it was held that the final decree can be altered based on the provisions of the amendment. If there is an enlargement or diminution of shares after passing the preliminary decree, it has to be considered while drafting the final decree by the Court. In the case of Ganduri Koteshwaramma & Anr. vs. Chakiri Yanadi & Anr (2005), it was decided that a preliminary decree can be amended as during the pendency of the suit, Section 6 was substituted by the 2005 Amendment, thereby enlarging the claims and shares of the daughters. A preliminary decree merely ascertains the rights and claims of the parties but a partition suit is not disposed of until a final decree is passed, effecting partition through metes and bounds. If, after the passage of a preliminary decree, any supervening circumstances occur, it is the duty of the Court to take them into consideration. Nothing prohibits a court from passing more than one preliminary decree.
In the case of Laxmi Narayan Guin & Ors. vd. Niranjan Modak (1985), it was held that if any supervening circumstances affecting the rights of the parties happen during the pendency of an appeal, it has to be taken into account by the court while delivering its final decision on the matter. The appellate court can give effect to the changes even after the Trial Court has passed a judgement.
The Apex Court stated that once the status of a coparcenary changes with the birth or death of a coparcener, shares have to be ascertained at the time of factual partition. The shares are determined based on the changed circumstances. The severance of status cannot come in the way of implementing statutory provisions and changes made through subsequent events. The statutory fiction of partition or what is referred to as the notional partition is very different from the actual partition.
It further clarified that the notional partition doesn’t bring about the end to a joint family or a coparcenary. Therefore, mere separation of status by initiating a suit does not bring partition and once the final decree is passed only then can a partition be considered final. Awaiting the final decree, the court has to take into consideration every sort of change in circumstances and supervening events. A legal fiction is only for the purpose it serves and it cannot be extended beyond the purpose.
In the case of Gyarsi Rai & Ors vs. Dhansukh Lal & Ors. (1965), it was held that the shares of all coparceners must be worked out to figure out the share of a deceased coparcener. In such a situation, the partition is assumed and is ultimately given effect only when the question of allotment arises. The Apex Court did not believe that a deemed or notional partition could bring an end to a joint family or a coparcenary.
In this instant case, the Supreme Court held that, as per all the previous decisions, it is clear that when rights are conferred subsequently, a preliminary decree can be amended and the benefit given by law has to be taken into account. The Apex Court rejected the effect of statutory fiction of proviso to Section 6, as was discussed in the Phulavati and Danamma cases. A daughter stains coparcenary rights from birth and they take effect from the date of the commencement of the amendment.
Reference to Section 6(5)
The Explanation to Section 6(5) states that partition means any partition which is affected by the decree of a court or through a registered partition deed. It is important to note that this explanation had no place in the original amendment bill. It was added later on. For all practical purposes, partition shall mean to be effected by a registered partition deed or a court decree. Whenever partition is oral, it must be supported by documentary evidence to prove it. Initially, the legislature wanted to recognise oral partition also but it would have led to sham or bogus transactions.
The intention of the amended version of Section 6 is to ensure that daughters are not deprived of their claims over coparcenary property. By claiming a sham partition on the fraudulent defence of oral partition or an unregistered memorandum of partition defeats that purpose. The court has to be careful of the fact that a claim of oral partition can be made deceptively, through a concerted effort to defraud or can be based on a memo of partition that has not been registered. Such partition should not be recognised under Section 6(5) so as to ensure that the intention of the legislation is not defeated.
In the case ofKale & Ors. vs. Deputy Director of Consolidation & Ors. (1976), it was held that in the case of a family arrangement for partition, the settlement must be made with good faith to resolve family disputes or rival claims through the fair and equitable distribution of shares among members. It must be made voluntarily without any coercion, fraud, or undue influence. It can be oral and may require no registration. A mere memo prepared after the family arrangement for the purpose of recording or providing information to the Court does not extinguish any rights in immovable properties. InChinthamani Ammal vs. Nandgopal Gounder, (2007),it was held that the plea of partition must be substantiated under law and there is always a presumption of jointness. Separate possession by co-shares is not a presumption of partition.
Earlier, oral partition was permissible and a burden of proof remained on the person who asserted the partition. The cessation of commonality was not taken as a valid proof of partition. Members of a joint family may be separated by food or residence for convenience but that does not end the joint family or coparcenary. It is a general presumption that every Hindu family is joint, unless the contrary is proven. Even when one coparcener is separated, the other remains joint. A severance of status can take place from the date of filing a partition suit but a decree is necessary for ascertaining the results of such a severance and for allotting definite shares in a final decree. Definite shares can be changed by changes arising during the pendency of a final decree. The Apex Court opined that there is a need for a special definition of partition. The intention of the provision is not to jeopardise the rights of a daughter through sham partitions. A plea of oral partition, therefore, must not be readily accepted by the court. It has to be proved by the person asserting it through documentary evidence.
Summarised decision
Ultimately, the Supreme Court upheld the following principles:
The provisions of the amended Section 6 confer the status of a coparcener on a daughter born before or after the amendment and she is subject to the same rights and liabilities as that of a son.
A daughter born before 9.9.2005 can claim her rights with savings as provided in Section 6(1), which protects any disposition, alienation, that partition took place before 20.12.2004.
Considering that coparcenary rights accrue from birth, it is not necessary to have a father living on the date of commencement of the amendment.
Statutory fiction of partition as enacted in the proviso to Section 6 of the unamended Act did not bring about any actual partition or disruption of the coparcenary. The fiction was merely for the purpose of ascertaining the shares of a deceased coparcener and it cannot be extended beyond that.
A defence of oral partition cannot be recognised as a statute-authorised mode of partition effected by a duly registered deed or a court decree. In rare cases, a defence of oral partition set up by reliable documents can be accepted in the same manner as a decree of the court.
All suits and appeals pending before various courts on similar matters had been delayed due to the legal confusion and therefore the Apex Court ordered the disposal of those suits following these principles within six months.
Conclusion
The decision in this case is an expansive and comprehensive piece of legal discussion that encompasses various provisions, precedents and principles to finally settle the legal confusion regarding the applicability of a section. This confusion, in its very essence, had the effect of depriving or delaying the equal claims over property made by many daughters and therefore it was important to settle it once and for all. This decision will serve as a guiding light as well as a safeguard to protect the coparcenary rights of women for years to come.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
What is the effect of the amended provision of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
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This article is written by Arya Senapati. It attempts to analyse the case of Saroj Rani vs. Sudarshan Kumar Chadha (1984) through the lens of its factual matrix, legal issues, legal provisions involved, and the ultimate decision given. It deals largely with the validity of restitution of conjugal rights and is a matrimonial matter in its nature. The article also deals with other related case laws either supported or overruled by the case.
Table of Contents
Introduction
Marriage as a social institution has surpassed the test of time and has been seen to be integral to the formation of society, family structures, the continuance of race, and traditions. As a gregarious being, man requires companionship which the institution of marriage fulfils. While different traditions and cultures view the idea and institution of marriage differently, it is relevant in all of them due to its long-standing purpose and ethos. Especially in the Hindu society, marriage is considered as a sacrament and a holy union between two persons performed through ceremonial rites and practices to solemnise its legitimacy. Customary Hindu law considered marriage as a permanent union and did not envisage the concept of separation or divorce. The idea that subsumed under the legacy of Hindu marriage was that the bond stays eternal for lifetimes and cannot be broken through volition.
With the passage of time and the introduction of modern ideas, feminist movements, and the recognition of the impotence of individual liberty, divorce was introduced as a measure to tackle the irretrievable breakdown of marriage. Many grounds were recognised on which a spouse could divorce another. With domestic violence and cruelty on the rise due to the existence of patriarchal structures within society, the need was felt to codify laws relating to marriage so as to protect the rights of individuals within it.
Divorce became an important legal tool in the hands of many women who wanted to free themselves from the confines of a cruel and inconsiderate relationship. While it is not seen fairly for the state to interfere much in the realm of personal laws, it also is the duty of the state to safeguard social institutions and protect the rights of individuals within it. To balance these overlapping duties, the concept of restitution of conjugal rights was recognised. The main idea behind the restitution of conjugal rights was to allow the spouses to stay together or cohabit for a certain amount of time to fully ascertain whether they want to end their marital ties or if is there a scope for reconciliation. If the court sees scope for reconciliation, it would indefinitely try to protect the marriage from a breakdown.
While one school of thought took it positively and viewed it as an effective measure to protect the institution of marriage, the opposing stream viewed it as a state sponsored violation of personal privacy and liberty as well as the free will of women. Based on varying arguments, multiple decisions regarding the constitutionality of restitution of conjugal rights were made out of which the most prominent one is the case of Smt. Saroj Rani vs Sudarshan Kumar Chadha (1984), in which the Apex Court upheld the constitutionality of the restitution of conjugal rights as a remedy to preserve the institution of marriage and its solemn sanctity.
Details of the case
Appellant: Smt. Saroj Rani
Respondent: Sudarshan Kumar Chadha
Court: Supreme Court of India
Bench: Sabyasachi Mukharji, Syed Murtaza Fazalali
Date: 08.08.1984
Citation: 1984 AIR 1562
Facts of the case
The parties in this case are spouses who were married in the city of Jalandhar as per the Hindu Vedic customs and rituals on the date of 24th January, 1975. Their first girl child was born on the 4th of January, 1976, and was named Menka. They had their second daughter, Guddi, on the date of 28th February 1977. On the 16th May, 1977, they last cohabitated. On that day, the husband, who is the respondent in the case, removed the wife, the appellant from his house and withdrew himself from her society. In an unfortunate turn of events, their second daughter passed away on 6th August, 1977 at the house of the respondent. On 17th October, 1977, the wife sued the husband with claims of restitution of conjugal rights under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
In the petition, the appellant claimed that the history of their marriage has been tough and tumultuous. There have been several instances of maltreatment towards her by her husband and his relations. After mentioning these instances, she prayed for the relief of restitution of conjugal rights through a decree of the court. On the date of 21st March, 1978, the Sub-Judge 1st Class passed an order which granted the appellant an amount of Rs 185 per month as maintenance during the pendency of the suit and Rs. 300 as expenses for the litigation. On 28th March, 1978, a consent decree was passed by the Sub-Judge which granted the restitution of conjugal rights.
It is important to note that the respondent denied any instances of maltreatment and denied the fact that he had thrown the appellant out of his house or had removed himself from her society or that he did not have any love and affection for him. Based on these premises, he agreed to a consent decree on the restitution of conjugal rights. The appellant alleged that she had gone to the respondent’s house and stayed with him for two days after the decree was passed. This fact was not accepted by any court and all the courts came to the conclusion that there has been no cohabitation after the consent decree granting restitution of conjugal rights was passed. This fact was not challenged in front of the Supreme Court.
On 19th April, 1979, the respondent filed a petition under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 alleging that one year has passed since the passing of the decree for restitution of the conjugal rights and there has been no cohabitation and therefore a decree of divorce must be granted to him on that ground. The appellant stated that her parents did take her to the respondent’s house after a month of the consent decree but the respondent kept her in his house for two days and then turned her out after that. The appellant also filed an application under Section 28A of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 stating that her husband should comply with the decree passed by the Sub-Judge and must establish cohabitation as per the decree. This application was pending before the Sub-Judge when the divorce petition was filed by the respondent.
Decision of District Court
The District Judge dismissed the petition for divorce filed by the respondent. The learned judge framed two legal issues. The first one was whether there has been no restitution of conjugal rights post the consent decree passed by the Sub-Judge and the second was regarding what relief is the husband entitled to as per law. After thorough consideration of all the evidence of all the civil and criminal cases which were pending with the parties, the District Court came to the decision that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights or cohabitation between the parties after 28th March, 1978 or the date on which the consent decree was obtained The District Court decided in favour of the respondent. Coming to relief entitled to the respondent, the Court observed that since the decree was consensual and during that period of time, no provision like Section 13B existed to grant a divorce by mutual consent, the respondent was not entitled to a divorce decree.
Punjab and Haryana High Court’s decision
Aggrieved by the decision of the District Court, the respondent filed an appeal in the Punjab and Haryana High Court. The wife contended that the husband cannot take the advantage of his own wrong which is his denial to cohabit with her. The High Court referred to the decision in the case of Dharmendra Kumar vs. Usha Kumari (1977)and stated that the appellant cannot be allowed to refer to this case in her contention as the husband was not taking any advantage of his mistakes or wrongs. In the case referred the Punjab and Haryana High Court had decided that it would not be reasonable to hold that the relief which was entitled to the party against whom a decree is passed or the restitution of conjugal rights should be denied to the one who doesn’t comply with the decree passed against him or her. As per the High Court, for a party to be wrong within the meaning of Section 23 (1)(a), the conduct that has been alleged has to be graver than a mere denial of a reunion offer. It must be a misconduct grave enough to defend the denial of the relief to which the parties are entitled to.
Based on this reference, the High Court rejected the contention of the wife that the husband can’t take advantage of his own wrong. The High Court held that the decree for restitution of conjugal rights was not a consent decree in its true nature but was rather a collusive one and therefore it disentitles the husband for a divorce decree. The judge of the High Court dealing with this case felt that this issue requires more attention and deliberation and therefore, he referred the matter to the Chief Justice and sought for a constitution of a Division Bench of the High Court to consider the matter.
The matter then moved to the Division Bench and Chief Justice Sandhawalia took into consideration various authorities of law and concluded that a consent decree cannot be termed as a collusive one to disentitle the husband from receiving a decree for restitution of conjugal rights. The division bench noted that the counsel representing the wife before the division bench did not make any reference to the factual findings of the Trial Court and did not deny the fact that there was no restitution of conjugal rights after the decree was passed. The counsel did not even rely heavily on the defence that the husband should not be allowed to take advantage of his own wrong as he refused to cohabit through the execution of the consent decree. The counsel simply relied on the ground that the decree was a collusive one. As per the decision taken by the Full Bench of Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Joginder Singh vs. Smt. Pushpa (1968), the majority of the judges held that a consent decree cannot be said to be collusive in all cases, and in cases where the parties had consented to the passion of the decree post various attempts to settle the dispute, the language used by Section 23 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 doe not disentitle the husband from getting a decree. Section 23 simply states that whenever the Court seeks to grant any relief provided by the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, it is duty bound to attempt to reach a reconciliation between the parties wherever it is practically possible before passing a decree granting relief. Based on all these aspects the High Court held that it is not possible to hold the decree to be a collusive one and the husband cannot be disentitled from a decree granting him relief. Aggrieved by this decision the wife challenged the same through an appeal to the Supreme Court.
Legal issues involved
There are a few primary but important legal issues that the Apex Court dealt with while deciding this matrimonial dispute. They are:
Is Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 which deals with the restitution of conjugal rights violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Indian Constitution?
Is the respondent entitled to a divorce decree even after failing to comply with the consent decree granting the restitution of conjugal rights?
Understanding Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with the concept of restitution of conjugal rights. The principle behind restitution of conjugal rights is that whenever a conflict exists between two parties, either of them can seek restitution as a remedy. In this form of remedy, the spouses are made to resume cohabitation with each other and assess if they can reconcile their differences and move forward to maintain their matrimonial relationships cordially. Whenever one of the partners withdraws either voluntarily or is removed by force from the shared household or society of the other, this remedy comes into play. The Court grants a decree of restitution of conjugal rights and orders the partners to cohabit with each other. The primary objective is to maintain and preserve the sanctity of marriage as it is considered as a sacrament in Indian traditions.
In the case of Smt. Saroj Rani vs. Sudarshan Chadha (1984), marriage was defined as a union between a husband and a wife who share a common life and participate in each other’s social surroundings, and activities, share happiness, and support each other in moments of trouble. Sexual intercourse has also been viewed as an aspect of matrimonial relationships even though not as a primary constituent of marriage that the Courts can impose the restoration of without the will of a partner. On the contrary, through the application of Section 9, the court can impose a restoration of common life, household, and society as a form of relief for an abandoned spouse.
Section 9 provides that in a circumstance where a husband or a wife withdraws from the society of the other without having any reasonable grounds, cause, or explanation, then the other spouse can file a petition to the District Court and claim the remedy of restitution of conjugal rights to preserve their matrimonial relationship. Once the Court is satisfied with the fact that the abandoning spouse has no reasonable ground for withdrawing themselves from the society of the other spouse, it can grant a decree of restitution of conjugal rights.
As per the provision, the following conditions must be met for sanctioning a decree of restitution of conjugal rights:
Either of the parties has withdrawn themselves from the life and society of the other spouse without having any reasonable cause/ ground or explanation.
The Court believes that the statements made by the petitioning party are true and well substantiated.
There exists no legal ground to decline the petition of restitution and refuse the remedy to the petitioner.
The meaning of the term “society” has been understood to be cohabitation and companionship which is usually expected out of a matrimonial relationship. Therefore withdrawal from society has been construed as the removal from a conjugal relationship.
In the case of Mrs. Manjula Zaverilal vs. Zaverilal Vithal Das (1973), the Court held that whenever an aggrieved party files a petition praying for restitution of conjugal rights and shows sufficiently that the respondent had withdrawn themselves from the society of the aggrieved party without any reasonable cause, then the court can grant the relief of restitution of conjugal rights.
Arguments for the appellant
The counsel for the appellant (wife) argued that the respondent (husband) did not intend to stay with his wife even after seeking a restitution decree. Even after obtaining the consent decree for restitution, the husband denied cohabitation with the appellant. The appellant had obeyed the decree and had gone to stay with him but after two days he kicked her out of his house. Therefore, the husband should not be granted a divorce decree as he should not be allowed to take benefits of his own wrongs. The counsel argued that the respondent wanted a divorce from the initial phase of the litigation and that the consent decree was simply a strategic move to manipulate the case in his favour.
Arguments for the respondent
The respondent argued that the appellant did not cohabit with him even after the consent decree was passed. He stated that the appellant’s statement that she attempted to resume cohabitation and also resided with him for two days after which she was kicked out is a fabricated and false statement. The act of the appellant has caused him great hurt. The consent decree was not of a collusive nature and therefore he should be granted divorce due to the irretrievable breakdown of their marriage.
Judgement by the Supreme Court
The Supreme Court is of the view that the facts on record make it clear that the decree was not a collusive one and that there was no secret agreement between the parties. The Apex Court noted the fact that the wife had made certain allegations against the husband which he had denied and he had stated that he was agreeing to take her back and cohabit with her. Based on these facts, the consent decree was passed. As per the Apex Court, it was impossible to find any collusion between the parties and agreed with the decision of the majority of the Division Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court that as per the case of Joginder Singh vs. Smt. Pushpa (1968), not all consent decrees as collusive in nature. Especially when it comes to matrimonial disputes, consent decrees cannot be deemed as collusive. It is evident from the legislative intent behind Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 that concepts like divorce by mutual concept are not alien to the regime of divorce law in India but since this matter came prior to the introduction of the provision, it could not be applied in this case. Based on these observations, the Supreme Court accepted the majority view of the division bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court on the legal issue of whether the decree was a collusive one or not.
Further, the Apex Court observed that in the appeal before the Supreme Court, the counsel representing the appellant-wife did not challenge the finding of the Division Bench which held that the consent decree can be substantiated in law as it was not collusive in nature. Rather, the counsel tried to urge that the expression “wrong” as mentioned in Section 23(1)(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 which prohibits a party from taking advantage of his own wrong, disentitles the husband from the decree of a divorce. The counsel argued that the husband-respondent from the initial point wanted a divorce decree in his favour. Based on this want, he did not object to the passage of the decree for the restitution of conjugal rights. The appellant argued that the husband agreed to the decree of restitution of conjugal rights being absolutely aware that he sought a decree of divorce ultimately. He was aware that he was not going to honour the decree. It was argued that he intended to mislead the court and the appellant and then refused the restitution of conjugal rights and therefore he should not be allowed to take advantage of his own wrongs. The Apex Court observed that there is no mention of these allegations in the pleadings of the appellant. When this want was pointed out by the bench of the Apex Court, the counsel prayed for an opportunity to amend his pleading and stated that the parties should not suffer because of the mistake of the counsel.
The Apex Court observed facts in this case which cannot be ignored. Firstly, there existed no pleading on the arguments vehemently relied upon. Secondly, the argument was not taken before any other court prior to the Apex Court. Thirdly, the facts which are led and the allegations which are made by the wife in the Trial Court and in the Division Bench of the High Court were contradictory to the allegations made before the Apex Court.
The Apex Court observed that the wife built her entire case on the fact that she and her husband entered cohabitation for two days only after the consent decree granting restitution of conjugal rights was passed. The ground that was then urged by the wife was that the husband sought to obtain a decree of judicial separation by entrapping the wife and not cohabiting with her so as to obtain a divorce decree. These contradictions arising in the wife’s case make her arguments weak and unsubstantiated. As per the Apex Court, there existed no scope for granting time to amend the pleadings at this stage of the case as it would have allowed her to present facts inconsistent with the case.
The counsel for the appellant urged the Apex Court to interpret the phrase “taking advantage of his or her own wrong” in such a manner that it would prevent cunning husbands from defrauding Indian wives and making them suffer at the instance of their dishonest husbands. Based on this augment, the Apex Court observed that there is no scope for the factual application of such an interpretation in this instant case and such interpretation would also require legislative interference not within the powers of the court. Therefore the Apex Court did not accept the contention. The Apex Court reached the conclusion that in the absence of any mental compunction and in the presence of a situation that shows that the marriage has broken down and parties cannot live together any longer as husband and wife, it is better to close the relationship.
Further, the Apex Court’s attention was drawn to the decision taken by a learned single judge of Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of T. Sareetha vs. Venkata Subbaiah (1983), in which the judge had observed that the remedy of restitution conjugal rights between two spouses as has been envisaged in Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, is a savage and barbaric remedy which violates the right to privacy and human dignity which manifestly arises from the Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
The learned single judge declared Section 9 dealing with restitution of conjugal rights as constitutionally void as it is an established principle of constitutional law that any statutory provision that violates the rights mentioned in Part 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be declared as void in terms of Article 13 of the Constitution. The learned judge had stated that Article 21 which guaranteed the right to life and personal liberty and its negative interpretation states that no state authority can take away the life or personal liberty of a person except as per the procedure established by law. This fundamental right is of extreme significance to every citizen and must be protected at all costs. The learned judge observed that whenever a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is passed, it results in the highest transgression of the individual right to privacy as a woman is denied of her free will as to when and how her body is supposed to be the vehicle for procreation of another human being.
As per the learned judge, the decree for restitution of conjugal rights deprives a woman of her choice and bodily autonomy over intimate decisions. As per the learned judge, a woman who wants to stay away from her husband because of a permanent or temporary marital rift cannot be forced to stay with her husband and be made to bear a child with her husband despite her denial. Such a remedy enforced on her at a time when she is considering getting a divorce complicates her state of mind, body, and life and imposes lifelong trauma. The learned judge stated that the provision did not serve any public purpose that is legitimate and there is no conception of the general good arising from the provision. Therefore, the provision is not subservient to social good.
The provision was held to be arbitrary and discriminatory as per Article 14 of the Indian Constitution which dealt with the right to equality. As per the observations of the learned judge, the provision offended the test for reasonable classification as it made no distinction between a husband and a wife as it made the remedy available to both but it is worth noting that mere equality of treatment despite unequal reality is not ideal to tenets of justice or constitutionality. The learned judge also observed how the remedy of restitution of conjugal rights was largely sought by the husband and not the wife.
The observations of the learned judge were dissent in the decision of Harvinder Kaur vs. Harmander Singh Choudhry (1983) which was delivered by the Delhi High Court. In the decision, the learned judge held that the provisions of Section 9 are not violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Indian Constitution. He opined that the purpose of a restitution decree was to foster cohabitation between the estranged parties to ascertain if they could possibly live together in matrimonial harmony in a shared household. The primary idea behind the provision is to preserve the institution of marriage. Sexual intercourse is simply one of the things that cohabitation consists of. It cannot be equated to the only thing that represents cohabitation. The Courts cannot and do not enforce sexual intercourse between spouses. Marital relationships comprise of a lot many things of which sexual relations are only a par. It is rather unsubstantial and of a trivial nature. The remedy is aimed towards matrimonial amity and not sexual intercourse. It is a legal fallacy to equate matrimonial cohabitation with sexual intercourse and to hold restitution of conjugal rights as government authorised invasion of marital privacy.
After observing both the decisions, the Apex Court in this instant matter adopted the view taken by the Delhi High Court. Conjugal simply refers to anything that pertains to marriage and to the relations shared between husband and wife. Conjugal rights imply the right of spouses to be a part of each other’s society. It is an inherent aspect of the institution of marriage. There are necessary safeguards in place in Section 9 to prevent abuse of the section. The Apex Court noted that Section 9 is merely the codification of a law that existed much before it. The law was Order 21 Rule 32 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 which dealt with the specific performance of restitution of conjugal rights or an injunction for the same. It stated that whenever a party against whom a decree for the specific performance of a contract or for the restitution of conjugal rights or an injunction is passed and the party has the option of obeying the decree but has intentionally avoided it, the decree can be enforced by attachment of property.
It is important to understand that, unlike a decree for the pacific performance of a contract, the impunity for restitution of conjugal rights is provided by the court where there is wilful disobedience towards such a decree. In such cases, their properties can be attached to execute the decree for restitution of conjugal rights. It is a form of financial sanction which is imposed by the courts. It has been regarded as an important measure to protect the sanctity of marriage as a social purpose. The Apex Court therefore stood against the view of the learned judge of the Andhra Pradesh High Court and upheld the constitution of the provisions regarding restitution of conjugal rights.
The Apex Court also referred to another decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court namely Geeta Lakshmi vs G.V.R.K. Sarveswara Rao (1982), in which the learned judge had held that the admitted misconduct of the husband is not merely restricted to disobeying the decree for restitution of conjugal flights but also ill-treating her and driving her away from their home. Based on this reasoning, the court had denied the husband a decree under Section 13(1A) for divorce. The facts of this case were seen to be very different from the present case before the Apex Court and therefore the Apex Court did not pay much consideration to the precedent as in the current case, there was no allegation or evidence of ill-treatment by the husband or any instance where the wife was removed from their home.
Based on all these factors, The Apex Court finally decided that the husband is entitled to a divorce decree but considering how an Indian divorced wife is always at a material disadvantage, the husband must be ordered to pay maintenance to the wife after the final decree of divorce is granted until the wife remarries and the husband also has the duty of maintaining their only living daughter from the marriage. Separate and distinct maintenance must be paid to the wife and to the daughter. The court also imposed the costs of this appeal on the appellant. The appeal was thus dismissed.
Who can file a petition under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Either of the spouses has the liberty to file a petition under the provision. Either of the spouse who is aggrieved by the other spouse withdrawing themselves from his/ her society without any just or reasonable cause can file a petition to compel the restoration of their marital relationships and cohabitation. The petition is usually filed at a Family Court which has jurisdiction over the area where the marriage was performed, or where the spouse used to live together, or where the spouse that has withdrawn themselves is currently residing. The Family Court gives both sides the opportunity to present their case. The aggrieved party must establish that the respondent spouse withdrew themselves from the society without any reasonable cause and the respondent spouse must establish any reasonable cause which led him/ her to leave. Some of the reasonable causes can be cruelty, domestic violence, mental or physical abuse etc. After hearing both the parties the court may grant a decree of restitution of conjugal rights and compel the abandoning spouse to resume cohabitation with the abandoned spouse.
Mode of execution of the decree
The decree for restitution of conjugal rights is executed through Order 21 Rule 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. The provision states that whenever a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is imposed on a person and the person willfully disobeys such decree, then it can be executed by attachment of his/her property. If such property remains attached for six months and the judgement-debtor still hasn’t obeyed the decree, the decree-holder can apply for the property to be sold, and in that case, the Court may arrange for the sale of such property and any proceeds arising out of it can be given to the decree holder in form of equitable compensation. The remaining portion can be given to the judgement debtor.
Rejection of petition for restitution
In the case of Sushila Bai vs. Prem Narayan (1986), the Court made a reference to valid grounds of defence for a petition of restitution of conjugal rights which can be proved to claim rejection of the same. They are:
The respondent can defend by claiming any other matrimonial relief against a suit for restitution of conjugal rights
The respondent can also provide evidence of misconduct by the petitioner which soured their relationship and made him/ her leave the other spouse.
A circumstance where it is not possible for both the spouses to live together is also a valid defence against a petition for restitution of conjugal rights.
Some grounds for rejection can be:
Cruelty of any form (mental, physical, economic, sexual) conducted by the petitioner of his relatives
Matrimonial misconduct on the part of the petitioner which must have caused problems for the respondent to continue living with the petitioner
Remarriage or bigamy of either of the spouses
In terms of Burden of proof, in the case of Mrs. Aruna Gordon vs. Mr G.V. Gordon (1999), it was held that initially, the burden of proof remains on the petitioner to prove that the respondent withdrew themselves from his/her society without any reasonable cause or ground. Then the burden of proof shifts to the respondent to prove that the statements made by the petitioner are wrong or to show that he/she had reasonable grounds for such withdrawal.
Landmark decisions on the restitution of conjugal rights
The judicial decisions on this matter leave a trail of principles and interpretations. While in the case of Saroj Rani vs. Sudarshan Chadha (1984), the Apex Court upheld the constitutionality of Section 9, there have been many other cases where the provisions have been duly interpreted.
Smt. Sushila Bai vs. Prem Narayan Rai (1985)
Facts
The case begins with the appellant (wife), filing an application under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act in the District Court of Gwalior in which she prayed for a decree of restitution of conjugal rights. The application stated that she was married to the respondent on 28th June, 1972 and after their marriage, they resided together. During the subsistence of their cohabitation, she faced multiple instances of mistreatment and was subjected to assault by the respondent She continued cohabitation even after such a troublesome situation yet on 1st May, 1977, the respondent abandoned her by leaving her at her parent’s house with clear instructions o not sending her back to him unless he asks for the same. Many letters were sent by her parents seeking the respondent to take the appellant back but they were not answered.
After going through the evidence, the District Court found out that the primary issue is that the wife seeks to stay with the husband in Bhopal where he is posted as a government employee but the husband wants the wife to reside with his father, mother and sister. The appellant just like any other wife, seeks to be in the company of her husband and experience marital bliss with him but the husband has continually expressed his desire to keep his wife away due to a lack of space and funds.
The Trial Court had rejected the evidence produced by the wife on the ground that there was no corroboration for all the statements made by her witnesses who are also unreliable as they are her close relations. The Trial Court found the testimony of the witness from the respondent’s side more reliable and reached the conclusion that the husband cannot be said to have deserted the wife/ appellant.
On close inspection of the facts and statements, the High Court of Madhya Pradesh believed that the statements made by the witnesses of the appellant were sufficiently corroborated and that she did not herself withdraw from their cohabitation. The fact that the husband deserted her can be corroborated by all the letters sent by her father to the respondent. The High Court found it hard to substantiate the judgement of the Trial Court as to what more amount of corroboration could have been required. The High Court ultimately reached the conclusion that the testimony provided by the witnesses of the appellant is reliable and there was no reason to decide that the wife herself withdrew from the matrimonial relationship with the respondent
Issues
The primary legal issue that arose in this case was that did the wife herself withdrew from the matrimonial relationship with her husband i.e. the respondent. The Court tried to answer the legal issue that when it is alleged that a spouse has withdrawn themselves from a matrimonial relationship, on whom does the burden of proof lie?
Arguments
The appellant argued that the respondent abandoned her by deserting her at her parent’s house and despite multiple letters and requests from her parents, the respondent did not wish to take her back. The respondent kept denying her the opportunity to stay with him because of a lack of space and insufficiency of funds. On the other hand, the respondent stated that there had been no instance of cruelty towards the appellant and that he did not desert her. As per the respondent, the appellant left him on her own will. The respondent alleged that the appellant had deserted him and withdrew herself from his society.
Judgement
The High Court started by defining the principle of restitution of conjugal rights by stating that it is a remedy for when either of a spouse, without any reasonable grounds, withdraws himself or herself from the society of the other. In such a situation, the aggrieved spouse has the remedy to file a petition to the District Court for the restitution of conjugal rights and when the court believes in the pleas made by the parties based on the evidence and statements presented by them, it can grant a decree for restitution of conjugal rights provided that there was no legal ground for denying such relief.
The High Court further states that to be able to substantiate a petition for the restitution of conjugal rights, it is a requirement to prove that the respondent has voluntarily withdrawn from the society of the petitioner. Here, society means conjugal society, and therefore the onus is on the petitioner to succeed in the case by the strength of his own pleadings and not by the weakness of the defence provided by the respondent. The Explanation added to Section 9 after the amendment to the Act is 1197 is merely a rule of evidence which states that the burden of proof with regards to a question relating to whether there was a reasonable ground for the respondent to withdraw from the society of the petitioner lies on the party who is pleading the excuse or ground. The burden of proof is not heavy in these cases as the spouses are expected to cohabit with each other and the one who chooses to live separately has to prove the existence of such situations which created reasonable grounds for him/ her to make that decision. At that moment, the burden of proof would naturally shift to the party to show that she withdrew herself from the society of the other based on reasonable grounds.
The High Court states that based on the evidence of the respondent, it is evident that there exists no ill intention towards his spouse and that he is ready to take her back and resume cohabitation. The issue that stands distinctly on its own is whether the respondent is prepared to keep her at Bhopal or at Bina. The Court observes that in this case, neither did the husband attack the chastity of the wife nor did the wife accuse the husband of having any extra marital problem. If the Trial Court had granted the relief sought by the wife, the spouses could have resumed their differences in no time. The lack of conjugal companionship is a problem that is extremely common in most matrimonial relationships and is something that is equally craved by both genders. This often leads to trivial disputes between them. To maintain the interest of matrimonial relationships, it is important to have safeguards in place against hasty separations and divorces,
The Court is of the opinion that there exists no ground as to why the wife should desert her husband and choose to become dependent on her parent’s resources. The appellant has proven to be sincere and has a bona fide desire to resume matrimonial cohabitation with her husband and fulfil all the rights and duties which are expected in such cohabitation. This case is not one where the wife seems to be educated and independent. The wife desires nothing else but simply to be closer to her husband and his heart. By attaining this goal, if she can receive fulfilment, then the Court must provide her adequate recourse by restitution of conjugal rights. Based on this reasoning the High Court held that the appeal was allowed and the impugned order of the Trial Court was set aside and further theCourt granted a decree of restitution of conjugal rights under Section 9 of the Act in favour of the wife/ appellant along with costs which should be paid by the respondent to the appellant as costs of the appeal.
Harvinder Kaur vs. Harmander Singh Choudhry (1983)
Facts
In this case, the constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, dealing with the restitution of conjugal rights was challenged and the Delhi High Court primarily restricted its observations on the issue of constitutionality of Section 9 as a substantial question of law rather than delving into the details of the facts of the case. Simply, the husband had sought the restitution of conjugal rights and the wife opposed it. The District Court granted a decree of restitution of conjugal rights to the husband and the appeal is preferred from the same decree wherein the wife has challenged the constitutional validity of the provisions granting restitution of conjugal rights.
Issue
The issue involves a substantial question of law which is whether the provisions granting restitution of conjugal rights as a remedy to a spouse who has been abandoned or deserted by the other spouse amounts to violation of constitutional provisions.
Judgement
As per the High Court, one must understand that a court cannot enforce and will never enforce sexual intercourse on a partner. The argument that by restituting conjugal rights, the Court is enforcing sexual relations on a spouse without his/ her consent falls flat because conjugal rights are much more than simple consummation. The Court accepted that sexual relations do constitute an important part of marriage and marital relations but it is also true that they are not the whole of what a marriage is and is neither important to the other aspects of marital life and bliss. Marriage has always been viewed as a mechanism towards procreation and education of children but it also has objects in mutual society, strength and support, companionship in prosperity as well as adversity. Marriage is one of the most pure relationships in which an individual can be tagged in. It is a relationship entered with an object to benefit each of them as well as benefit third parties and their common offspring.
The Court provided an illustration that stated that a person’s house is his castle and fortress. The spouses can seek a roof for protection behind the door of their family house which any civil institution and authority should not be able to penetrate in any manner. The effect of constitutional law into the folds of the domestic relationship of husband and wife will affect the very foundation of a relationship. Such imposition of constitutional principles on domestic relationships will lead to a multiplicity of litigation and challenge the sanctity of matrimonial relationships. It would lead to an attack on the protections and safeguards on which the matrimonial relationships rely. The courts cannot question the wisdom of the legislature but rather only put it into effect and do the best that they can to the laws as the Parliament intended them to be used. If reconciliation fails in a marriage, the question of maintenance comes into the picture.
Therefore, the Court is of the opinion that there are enough resources for partners to take in case the marriage irretrievably broken down and in such a situation it can’t be said that the court forced them to resume cohabitation with each other despite irreconcilable differences. Therefore, based on all these factors, the court reached the conclusion that Section 9 is not constitutionally void. In this case, the court decided that a decree for the restitution of conjugal rights can act as an inducement for couples to live together but the court can not force either party to come into a physical relationship with each other. The essence of matrimonial relationships is duly addressed and covered in the details of this judgment.
Recent challenge to the Constitutionality of restitution of conjugal rights
Recently, the students of Gujarat National Law University filed a writ petition in 2019 challenging the constitutionality of restitution of conjugal rights under various family laws but primarily Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The case is referred to as Ojaswa Pathak vs. Union of India (2019) and is undecided. The grounds of challenge were largely based on the premise of the bodily autonomy of a woman. The petition stated that a decree for restitution of conjugal rights stands against the autonomy of a woman; it forces her to return to her husband’s home where she might be subjected to cruelty or misconduct of some sort. The second primary ground of contention is regarding the sexual autonomy of a woman.
The petitioners state that the order for restitution of conjugal rights affects the sexual autonomy of a woman and forces her into a situation where she might be forced to have sexual intercourse with her husband without her own will as consummation and intercourse form integral aspects of cohabitation. They state that this is against Article 21 of the Indian Constitution as it affects the right to life and liberty of the woman, The final ground of challenge is that the application of the law is largely unequal and places a heavy and inequitable burden on women which violates the Article 14 and Article 15 of the Indian Constitution which deals with right to equality and right against discrimination. The case is still pending before the courts and the decision is yet to come but it will shape the discourse on the validity of restitution of conjugal rights nonetheless.
Conclusion
While there are two schools of thought when it comes to the restitution of conjugal rights and its validity, it is still constitutional in the Indian legal system. The conservative school of thought believes that it is a necessary relief against desertion or abandonment of a spouse to ensure the preservation of matrimonial relationships and institutions, while the feminist school of thought believes it to be a grave violation of the right to privacy of a woman. Different High Courts have had differing views on the validity of the matrimonial relief but ultimately the Supreme Court in the case of Saroj Rani vs. Sudarshan Chadha (1984) upheld its constitutionality and felt that it is necessary for the preservation of matrimonial relationships. Going forward it is yet to be seen if the opinion of the Apex Court will change while deciding the recent challenge to the provisions for restitution of conjugal rights. Whatever the outcome may be, it is important to reconsider the position of women in an egalitarian society and the contemporary institutions of marriage while dealing with matrimonial relationships and reliefs. Nonetheless, the decision given by the Apex Court in this instant case will surely serve as a guiding light in many other judicial decisions as it has till now.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
What needs to be proved to receive the relief of restitution of conjugal rights?
The petitioner needs to prove that the respondent withdrew themselves from his/ her society without any reasonable causes or grounds and has not resumed cohabitation ever since.
What are the reasonable grounds for denying restitution of conjugal rights?
Restitution of conjugal rights can be denied on grounds relating to matrimonial relief like cruelty, physical or mental abuse, misconduct, impotence of husband, mental insanity, domestic violence, remarriage, or bigamy.
What happens when a restitution decree is passed but the respondent doesn’t comply?
When the respondent or the judgement debtor doesn’t comply with a decree for restitution of conjugal rights, the court can attach their property and sell if compliance is not shown within six months of such attachment.
What happens when a restitution decree is passed but the decree holder doesn’t comply?
When the decree holder himself doesn’t comply with a decree for restitution, he cannot file for any other relief like divorce as he cannot be made to take advantage of his own wrong as per principles and provisions of law.
Which court deals with cases for restitution of conjugal rights?
Usually, the cases relating to the restitution of conjugal rights are dealt with by family courts.
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This article is written by Varun Verma. It provides a detailed analysis of the judgement in the case of State of Tamil Nadu vs. State of Karnataka (1991). The article further elaborates on the facts of the case, issues, arguments by the parties, rationale behind the judgement, and a critical analysis of the judgement. This article also discusses the provisions and articles of the Constitution which played a key role in the case.
Table of Contents
Introduction
“When the well’s dry, we know the worth of water.” – Benjamin Franklin.
The analysis of the case State of Tamil Nadu vs. State of Karnataka and Ors. (1991) is centred upon the decades long Cauvery river water sharing dispute between two states. The river under the dispute courses through the states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry, merging eventually with the Bay of Bengal. People of these states have always believed that the river is socially, economically, politically, and culturally important in their lives. The conflict between the states pertains to the allocation of water resources, and both states have been vying for a bigger portion of the river to cater to their needs and requirements.
The genesis of this dispute lies in two agreements in 1892 and 1924 between the Princely state of Mysore (present-day Karnataka) and Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu). Over the years, the Cauvery river dispute among the states has seen a series of legal battles, agreements, and disagreements. The judgement has broader implications upon the inter-state water dispute resolution in India. This article will provide a thorough analysis of the case and the water dispute resolution mechanism.
Details of the case
Name of the case:State of Tamil Nadu vs. State of Karnataka
Citation of the case: 1991 SCR (2) 501, 1991 SCC SUPL. (1) 240
The dispute in the case goes back to British colonial rule over 81,155 sq km of the total watershed of the Cauvery basin, which originates in Kodagu district’s Tala Cauvery in Karnataka and flows through Mysore, Haasan, and Mandya districts before entering Cuddalore, Karur, and other districts in Tamil Nadu. Cauvery river is also widely known as Kaveri river. It also flows through Kerala and Puducherry, which covers a catchment area of 34,273 sq km in Karnataka, 2,866 sq km in Kerala and the remaining 44,016 sq km in Tamil Nadu and Puducherry.
Since the Cauvery river holds value for the people of all four states, it was evident that disputes would arise regarding the utility of the river and the proportionate division among the states. The dispute began in 1892 between the Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu) and Mysore (present-day Karnataka). The primary dispute arose during the period of water scarcity, regarding the distribution of water during regular years, along with establishment of dams, water reservoirs, etc. Both the states were heavily dependent on the river because of their rising population and agricultural activities.
Following the disagreement and agitation among the states, the British intervened and presided over the water sharing dispute. In 1924, both the states, i.e., Madras and Mysore, came under an agreement for 50 years, where the rules of water utilisation were listed out. The agreement also allowed Mysore to build the Kannambadi Dam, while Madras proposed an irrigation project. The agreement resulted in allocation of 75% of Cauvery river’s water to Tamil Nadu and Puducherry, 23% to Karnataka and rest water flows into Kerala.
Thereafter came the period of post-independence, when this water-sharing issue became prominent among the states after the reorganisation of states in the year 1956. With escalations in violence, both the states argued over the construction of various dams on the river by Karnataka. Karnataka also contended that the agreement has referred to the “doctrine of unconscionability” with regard to the situation between both the states.
The expiration of the agreement between both also made Tamil Nadu dependent on the river for its huge area of agriculture in the delta area. Karnataka, following the post-independence period between the 1960s to 1980s built four dams on the Cauvery river, which were, Hemavati, Kabini, Suvarnavathy, and Harangi, after which precariously affected Tamil Nadu, being the lower riparian state and in the end they ultimately proceeded towards the Supreme Court.
Tamil Nadu’s Farmers Association in the Thanjavur area, along with the State Government filed a complaint under Section 3 of the Inter-state River Water Disputes Act, 1956 dated 06/07/1986 to the Central Government for their interest being pre-judiciously and injuriously affected by the breach of agreement and actions taken by the State of Karnataka relating to the distribution, use, and control of water of Cauvery river. In 1990, when the negotiations between the two states failed after hearing the petition from both sides in the Apex Court, the Supreme Court ordered the state to form a tribunal which could provide the ultimate award for the dispute. On June 2, 1990, to adjudicate the water dispute between all four states, The Central Government of India established the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) with respect to inter-state Cauvery water and river basin.
The Government of Tamil Nadu also filled C.M.P. No. 4 of 1990 to the tribunal, praying to stop Karnataka from impounding and utilising water of the Cauvery river beyond what was agreed in the terms between the Union Minister for Irrigation and Power and should restrain Karnataka from undertaking any new projects related to dams, reservoirs, canals, etc. Following this, Puducherry filled C.M.P. No. 05 for an interim order governing the two states, i.e., Karnataka and Kerala, to issue the first instalment of the final order of 20 thousand million cubic feet (TMC) of water as it was crucial to maintain the levels in Mettur Reservoir for Samba crop cultivation.
For the applications made regarding theinterim relief, the tribunal dismissed them as not maintainable on the grounds that the tribunal was only authorised to govern the matters regarding the water dispute or disputes that have been referred to it. Thus, it could not entertain the prayer made by Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry for interim relief against Karnataka.
It’s clear that the tribunal wrongly refused to exercise their jurisdiction for various matters in the dispute, for the same three questions arisen out of the dispute, i.e.,
(1) whether the court has jurisdiction to decide the jurisdiction and powers of tribunal under the Act,
(2) Whether the tribunal has jurisdiction to grant or entertain the applications of interim relief, and
(3) the prayers that were made by the petitioners in the applications for interim relief were covered or not under the matter referred to the tribunal.
In 1991, the tribunal passed an interim order ordering Karnataka to release 205 TMC water annually to Tamil Nadu. Karnataka promulgated an ordinance for nullifying this interim order. This was further taken down by the Supreme Court. The main issues before the Supreme Court pertained to the validity and enforceability of the 1892 and 1924 agreements for reorganisation of states, equitable water allocation, water availability assessment and apportionment principles between the two states. The Supreme Court also handled several interlocutory interim relief applications and directions filed by the states during distressed situations over the years.
Issues raised
Whether the Supreme Court of India had jurisdiction over deciding the powers and jurisdiction of the Cauvery water dispute tribunal?
Whether the Cauvery water disputes tribunal had power and jurisdiction to handle the Tamil Nadu and Puducherry applications filed for seeking the interim relief?
Whether the prayers under the filed applications for interim relief were covered under the water dispute referenced in the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal by the Central Government?
Arguments of the parties
Petitioner’s arguments
The learned counsel for the petitioner state, Mr. K. Parasaran, argued in that the provisions contained in Section 11 of the Inter-state River Water Dispute Act, 1956, when read with Article 262 of the Constitution of India, only sets aside the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court to govern any dispute, complaint, or matter with respect to the distribution or control, use of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley.
Petitioner reiterated its demurral that Karnataka had allegedly constructed four reservoirs consequently, i.e., over Kabini, Hemavati, Harangi, and Suvarnavathi tributaries of Cauvery river and while going against the stipulated agreement, they were storing water that was above their set limit under the agreements of 1892 and 1924. Thus, Tamil Nadu further argued that the essence of the said agreement was to utilise the water, and the decisions regarding the same shall govern claims of all the parties in the agreement, especially in the case of inter-state river and river valleys. Bare perusal of the above arguments clearly shows that the construction of the dams and reservoirs on Cauvery river without any consent of Tamil Nadu who is the second party to the said agreement is a clear violation. That being the upper riparian state does not give power to Karnataka to prejudice the interests of the people of Tamil Nadu.
The learned counsel also argued that the grievance of the appellants only extends to the statement that the tribunal has no jurisdiction to entertain any interim relief application which is wrongly concluded. The learned counsel also contended that the court is competent and can exercise such powers, and it is within their jurisdiction to govern the scope of powers of the tribunal under the Act, along with directing the tribunal to entertain any applications, for instance, the application ofinterim relief, etc.
The state asserted on the fact that water sharing agreements are legally binding and both states must respect them. Further invoking the principle of appropriation also means the entity that first appropriates the water for any beneficial use acquires the right of continued usage against the later appropriators. Also, the party received less rainfall, hence heavily relying just on the water resource of Cauvery river.
The state contended that the court itself has the power or jurisdiction to decide the purview in which the matter has to be decided and the powers under which the tribunal has to act. They argued that the reason to approach the court is because of their grievance, which extends to the wrongly decided matter against them by the tribunal, stating that the tribunal has no jurisdiction to entertain any matter that is not referred to it, such as, interim relief.
Respondent’s arguments
Dr. Y.S. Chitale, on behalf of respondent state for the interim relief raised objections by opposing the application, stating that the tribunal constituted under the Act has limited powers or jurisdiction and can only decide for matters as such which are confined to it or are under the Act, and there are not as such which may authorise them to grant interim relief.
The learned counsel of the respondent state also raised an objection that the court has no merits or jurisdictions to decide or entertain the appeal, as Article 262 of the Constitution distinctly provides for the adjudication of matters relating to water of inter-state rivers should be decided by laws made by Parliament.
The party has asserted the situation of having a significant area within the Cauvery basin and is dependent on its water for the livelihood of the large population there. It was also expressed by them that any reduction in its share of water could adversely affect the farmers interests. The state argued that it has the right to utilise the share of Cauvery water for their development and irrigation facilities within the territory.
The state contended that the pre-independence agreements were signed under British colonial rule which did not consider the present realities of the state requirements. And also asserted that the waters must be shared based on the principle of equitable apportionment.
Laws and legal concepts discussed in the case
This case revolved around the dispute of Cauvery river water resource usage involving the interests of two states, i.e., Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. The court took a close look at the laws involved and the facts of the case while delivering the resolution for the case.
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956
This Act was enacted under Article 262 of Constitution of India to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers and valleys. This Act stands as a cornerstone in India’s legal framework for water conflict resolution.
Section 3
The Section says that if it appears to the Government of any state that a water dispute with the Government of another state has arisen or is likely to arise by reason of the facts that the interests of the state, or of any of the inhabitants thereof, in the waters of an inter-state river or river valley have been or are likely to be affected prejudicially by any executive action or legislation taken or passed or proposed to be taken by the other state government or the failure of the other state or any authority for exercising any of their powers with respect to the use, distribution or control of such waters or the failure of the other state to implement the terms of any agreement relating to the use, distribution or control of such waters. The State Government may, as prescribed, request the Central Government to refer the water dispute to a tribunal for adjudication.
Hence, this Section provides power to the State Governments to lodge a complaint with the Central Government when they believe their interests are prejudicially affected by the actions of another state regarding the shared water resource. In this case, this provision was invoked by the Tamil Nadu Government in its complaint against the State of Karnataka.
Section 4
Section 4 of the Act says that when any request under Section 3 is received from any state Government in respect of any water dispute and the Central Government is of opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, the Central Government shall by notification in official gazette within one year time from the date of receipt of such request, constitute a water dispute tribunal for the water dispute adjudication. Provided that any dispute settled by a Tribunal before the commencement of the Inter State Water Disputes (Amendment) Act, 2002. The tribunal formed shall consist of a chairman and two other members nominated by the Chief Justice of India and the Central Government may in consultation with the tribunal, appoint two or more persons for the role of assessment for advising the tribunals proceedings.
Hence, this Section empowers the Central Government to establish a water dispute tribunal for adjudicating such disputes. In this case, this Section has given a legal basis for the constitution of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, a specialised body tasked with resolving long-standing conflict over the Cauvery River’s waters.
Section 5
Section 5 of the Act says when a tribunal has been constituted under Section 4, the Central Government shall, irrespective of the Section 8, simply refer the dispute to the tribunal for adjudication process. The tribunal then took it forward, investigated the matters referred to it and forward to the Central Government a report setting out the facts as found by it and giving its decision on the matters within a specified period.
If upon consideration of the tribunal decision, the Central Government or any state Government is of opinion that anything therein contained requires explanation or that guidance is needed upon any point not originally referred to the tribunal, the Central Government or the State Government as the case maybe, refer the matter to the tribunal for further consideration within three months from date of decision, and the tribunal have to send the report to Central Government within one year from the date of reference. Also it is mentioned that if the members of the tribunal differ in opinion on any point, the point shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority. Provided that, the period of 1 year within which the tribunal forwards the report to the Central Government, this time period can be extended by the Central Government, if they consider it necessary.
Hence, this Section provides a process of referring the water dispute to the tribunal. In this case, this Section has explained the scope of the dispute that the tribunal was empowered for adjudicating. This reference interpretation has become a key point of contention with the Supreme Court ultimately knowing that the tribunal has made errors in its narrow reading of the reference to this Section.
Section 11
As per this Section, notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall have or exercise jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to a tribunal under this Act. The most controversial aspect of this case is Section 11 which bars the jurisdiction of the courts over water disputes that may be referred to a tribunal under the Act. In this case, the court asserted its powers of interpretation of the Act and determining the scope of the tribunal’s jurisdiction apart from the bars on its jurisdiction.
Inter-State River Water Disputes Rules, 1959
These rules are the ones framed under Section 13 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. These were made for providing procedures for water disputes tribunals functioning.
Constitution of India
The Constitution is the supreme law of India providing a framework for demarcating the fundamental basic code, powers, duties and procedures including that related to any water related disputes between the states.
Article 262
Article 262 provides for the right of Parliament to provide law for adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys. Also notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as referred to in the clause.
This article has provided a constitutional basis for the Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, giving powers to Parliament to enact the laws for inter-state water related disputes. This article also empowers Parliament to exclude by law the court’s jurisdiction in respect of such disputes. In this case, article 262 has played a noteworthy role in backing up the formation of the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Article 32
This Article provides the right to move to the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for enforcing the rights conferred. This article being the heart and soul of the Constitution of India, provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of any fundamental rights enshrined under the Constitution of India. In this case, Article 32 is referred to in the judgement to relate with the present case of Cauvery river water dispute. This Article provides for seeking redressal to their water sharing rights violation.
Interpretation of statutes
The interpretation of statutes means the correct understanding of the law. This process is commonly used by the courts to understand the exact intention of the laws and is used to ascertain the actual connotation of any act with the actual intention of the laws.
Incidental and ancillary powers
The incidental and ancillary powers implies the powers of the legislative body on a particular issue. It also involves the power of enacting on incidental and ancillary matters that are genuinely connected with the issues in the case.
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
The Supreme Court of India is the Apex Court. The Supreme Court of India has inherited the jurisdiction of the Central Court. The Supreme Court of India has original, appellate, advisory, and writ jurisdiction. Apart from this, the Supreme Court has power to review any judgement and is empowered to be an ultimate interpreter of the Constitution of India.
In this case, it has been under question whether the Supreme Court has jurisdiction to decide the scope of jurisdiction of a tribunal established under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Exclusion of jurisdiction
The jurisdiction is a power of authority under which a court can decide a matter as per the laws. In this case, Karnataka argued that the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was excluded under the Constitution which provides for adjudication of inter-state water disputes constructed under the laws made by Parliament.
Maintainability of appeals against the tribunal orders
Maintainability of appeal means whether the appeal can be processed, and it depends upon various factors like applicable laws, type of the case, and specific circumstances of the appeal. This case deals with the question whether an appeal can be maintained before the Supreme Court against an order by the tribunal.
Cooperative federalism
This principle emphasises the importance of coordination, collaboration, and cooperation between the different government levels in implementation and development of the programs and policies. In the context of this case, this principle was invoked by Tamil Nadu to support its arguments about resolving disputes based on mutual cooperation with adherence to legal principles.
Equitable apportionment
This principle is used in resolving the inter-state water dispute. It suggests that water resources must be divided among the riparian states in a fair and equitable manner after considering the geography of the basin, population dependent on water, hydrology, water efficacy, economic needs, and its sustainability. In the context of this case, this principle is used by Karnataka to support its arguments for a larger share of the Cauvery River water resource.
Doctrine of prior appropriation
This doctrine is a legal principle governing the water rights allocation in various jurisdictions. It is often referred to as “first in time, first in right.” According to this doctrine, the first party who diverts the water from a water source and uses it for some benefit has the right to continue to use that amount of water thereafter. In this case, Tamil Nadu invoked this doctrine for supporting its claim to a larger share of the river and argued, saying that they had been using the Cauvery water for irrigation and other purposes for centuries before Karnataka. Thus, as per this principle, they have a right to continue usage of water as they were the first users of the Cauvery river.
Relevant judgements referred to in the case
Sanjeev Coke Manufacturing Company vs. Bharat Coking Coal Ltd. & Anr (1982)
This case decided by the Supreme Court bears a broad relevance to the Cauvery River Water Dispute case in terms of legal principles discussed, irrespective of the subject matter being different. This case dealt with the constitutional validity of the Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1972 and the Apex Court upheld that, mentioning that there is protection available for such Acts under Article 31C and 39(b) of the Constitution and further, the court emphasised that there is a limited role of the judiciary for questioning policy and economic matters decided by the legislature. These legal principles discussed in the case are broadly relevant to the Cauvery river water dispute case.
Kehar Singh and Anr. vs. Union of India and Anr (1989)
In this case, the scope of the President’s power for granting pardon under the Article 72 of the Constitution of India was discussed. The Supreme Court in this case held that the President while exercising its powers under Article 72 is also entitled to go into the merits of the case even if it was concluded by the Supreme Court judicially. These principles discussed in this case are broadly relevant to the Cauvery river water dispute for understanding the scope of executive powers and their amenability for judicial review.
Tamil Nadu Cauvery Neerppassna Vilaiporulgal Vivasayigal Nalaurimal Padhugappu Sangam vs. Union of India & Ors. (1990)
In this case, the Supreme Court directed the Central Government to establish a Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal. The Cauvery water dispute case was built upon this case as foundation. Both these cases are integral to the long standing Cauvery river water dispute highlighting the complex legal issues involved in sharing water from Cauvery.
Dr. Babu Ram Saksena vs. The State (1950)
In this case, the issue of extradition and applicability of an old extradition treaty between the Tonk and the British Government after India’s independence and merger of Tonk into Rajasthan was discussed. Now after this situation, the Supreme Court has to determine whether this treaty still governs extradition matters or if the unified The Extradition Act, 1962 can be applied. The confusion was due to opinion that political changes and merger had made the old treaty no longer applicable and enforceable. This case is related to the Cauvery river water dispute case since both deal with the legal implications of pre-existing agreements or treaties.
H. H. Maharajadhiraja Madhav Rao Jiwaji vs. Union of India (1970)
In the case, the validity of the President’s order derecognizing all rulers of the former princely states was discussed. The majority opinion was that the President’s order was unconstitutional as it violates the provisions of the Constitution of India which guarantees privy purses and privileges to the former rulers under the Article 291 and 362 of the Constitution of India. This case is related to the Cauvery river water dispute case since both are dealing with interpreting constitutional provisions related to pre-independence agreements and their validity in present time.
Judgement of the case
The present case arose from a long standing dispute between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka regarding the sharing of water resources. For the issue of whether the court had jurisdiction for deciding the scope of powers of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal under the Act, the court held that it is the ultimate interpreter of the Inter-State Water Disputes Act and has the complete authority to decide powers, jurisdictions, and limitations of the tribunal.
Even if there is exclusion of jurisdiction enshrined by Article 262 of the Constitution, the court had the power to determine whether the tribunal had denied exercising its jurisdiction. It is the responsibility of the judiciary to lay down the frontiers of jurisdiction of the tribunal formed under the legislation or any related body organisation. This power is important for ensuring statutory bodies function within the limits of their authority and don’t exceed their jurisdiction.
For the issue of interim relief sought by Tamil Nadu, the court held that the tribunal has committed serious error in declaring that the interim relief is not covered under the reference made to it. The complaint had clearly mentioned immediate relief needed, but the tribunal erred in not understanding the adverse impact this is posing on the state. In light of the above circumstances and scenarios of the case, the court allowed the appeal which was filed and set aside the tribunal’s judgement directing it to decide the application for interim relief based on merits. The court also mentioned the importance of comprehensive and careful reference of disputes to the tribunal by the Central Government.
The court held that 1892 and 1924 agreements between the two states cannot be held to be inoperative or extinct, although these were governed by the principles after independence. Also, the principle of equitable apportionment has to be followed for resolving the water related dispute, considering the doctrine of equity. The water allocation for domestic purposes has to be placed on higher priority, and the water required for hydropower projects has lesser priority.
Both states were directed to take all necessary steps and measures for optimising water usage, minimising water waste, and ensuring sustainability. The appeal was disposed of finally in the above terms, and parties were to bear their own costs. Therefore, this judgement in the present case is a great contribution to the inter-state water disputes jurisprudence and statutory tribunals powers, functions, and jurisdiction.
After multiple judgements and orders, the Supreme Court in the year 2018 gave its final judgement allocating the 287.75 TMC water to Karnataka and 404.25 TMC water to Tamil Nadu. The court also emphasised the need to maintain a minimum environmental flow in the Cauvery river for protecting biodiversity and ecosystem. The government has been directed to form a Cauvery River Management Board to oversee the Cauvery river and handle all of its affairs.
Analysis of the case
This judgement by the Supreme Court is a significant ruling dealing with several important legal concepts and a careful balance between the statutory tribunals and constitutional powers of the court. The dispute arose between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for the sharing of water resources of Cauvery river.
Tamil Nadu alleged that Karnataka’s actions were adversely affecting its interest in using the Cauvery river. And for the same, Tamil Nadu sought help from the Central Government under the laws laid down in the Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956. In response, the Central Government established the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal for adjudicating disputes and referred the case also to it.
During the pendency of dispute, Tamil Nadu filed an application seeking interim relief from the tribunal. But, the tribunal held that it could not accept the applications for interim relief as it was not specifically referred to by the Central Government to it. Aggrieved by this decision of the tribunal, Tamil Nadu decided to approach the Supreme Court of India raising important concerns about the court’s jurisdiction to decide the scope of powers of the tribunal and interpretation of cases referred to it.
Recent judgement : State of Tamil Nadu vs. State of Karnataka (2018)
In February 2018, the Supreme Court of India gave a long-standing judgement pertaining to the Cauvery water dispute and putting a halt to the age-old dispute between the four states, i.e., Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and the union territory of Puducherry.
At first, the court vigilantly began to address the issues, legality and validity of the contracts between the states i.e., the contract made between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu in the years 1892 and 1924. The courts held that although the contract of 1924 expired according to its fixed term of 50 years, the states notably never announced the expiration of its validity of its term and kept implying its continuity even after the States Reorganization Act of 1956.
Pertaining to the applicability of Article 363 which bars the Supreme Court from interfering in certain matters, the Apex Court clarified that the conflicts involved in the current dispute did not have a bearing on the sovereignty and integrity of India, thus the article remains inapplicable.
In 2007, the tribunal passed the final verdict mentioning the share of water between the two states. There was a delay in publication of the award passed in the year 2007 which was passed in 2013 then by a two judge bench for overseeing the implementation of the final order. Both states expressed dissatisfaction with this final verdict and filed a review petition.
The state demanded re-negotiation of the settlement to ensure fair water resource allocation. Having been dissatisfied with the Cauvery water disputes tribunal’s final award in the year 2007, the state sought a review for water allocation and argued that the tribunal had not passed the decision based on a fair assessment and the present needs of both the states.
The learned counsel for the respondent further elaborated the facts, inter alia, that the obstruction in the development of dams and reservoirs (the water projects of the state) by Tamil Nadu resulted in large tracts of land to be left undeveloped, which further hindered the lives of the people of the state. He further objected to Tamil Nadu’s admission before the Cauvery Fact Finding Committee pertaining to the Samba crop cultivation that Tamil Nadu has deliberately downplayed no contribution of rainfall in their affidavit regarding the Samba crop. The learned counsel insisted upon his submission that share of the natural resources shall be equitable in terms of utilisation pertaining to its natural flow.
However, the Apex Court endorsed the tribunal’s approach in handling the dispute and focusing on equitable apportionment. In the year 2016, the Supreme Court asked Karnataka to release 15000 cusecs of water per day to Tamil Nadu. The court further asked Karnataka to re-consider the plea of Tamil Nadu for humanity and release water and also advised the parties to maintain harmony and peace. Karnataka, unsatisfied with the order passed, protested against the Supreme Court’s order.
Further, as the time passed, the dispute intensified. Karnataka often failed to release the water as stipulated. Thereafter, Tamil Nadu approached the Supreme Court multiple times raising concerns about Karnataka’s non-compliance with order passed by the tribunal. In addition to this, Tamil Nadu also contended that the respondent had allegedly constructed multiple dams surrounding Ponnaiyar river basin of Karnataka which were ultimately affecting the flow of river and resulted in severe livelihood of lakhs of farmers in various districts of Tamil Nadu.
In the year 2018, the Supreme Court pronounced a verdict while modifying the award of the tribunal on the matter allocating of water and additionally added 14.75 TMC of water to Karnataka increasing the total share by 284.75 TMC. Consequently, 404.25 TMC of water allotted to Tamil Nadu, 30 TMC of water to Kerala and 7 TMC of water to Puducherry, clearing all the pending cases and confusions. Also, mandated the constitution of Cauvery River Management Board under the official gazette. But even after this, the dispute continued and the parties occasionally kept on flaring up and protesting. Following this, the court also directed for a monthly release of water to Tamil Nadu.
The Apex Court’s ruling also sheds a limelight over the drinking water allocation to the city of Bangalore. While the tribunal limited the allocation of water to the city, the court disagreed with the approach of the tribunal and held that the drinking water needs cannot be measured on the basis of the territorial or geographical demarcations within the river basin.
Conclusion
The judgement by the Supreme Court in the present case is a significant ruling underscoring the important role of the judiciary in interpretation of statutes and determining the scope of powers of tribunals. The Supreme Court affirmed its authority to interpret the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956, and also to decide the powers, functions, jurisdictions, and limitations of the tribunals. The judgement laid down by the court can be a precedent for the similar nature of disputes in the future course of time and will ensure that disputes related to water resources are adjudicated in an efficient and fair manner.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
Which Indian law governs the adjudication of inter-state water disputes?
The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 provides for the adjudication of disputes related to inter-state water resources.
What was the dispute between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka leading to the case being filed in the Supreme Court?
The dispute was regarding the sharing of Cauvery river water between the two states. Tamil Nadu alleged that the Karnataka state actions prejudicially affected its interests and needs.
What is the main issue of this case which was raised before the Supreme Court of India?
The main issue raised was whether the Supreme Court had jurisdiction to decide the scope of powers of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal under the law laid down by the Inter-state Water Disputes Act, 1956.
What did the tribunal hold regarding its power and jurisdiction for granting the interim relief?
The tribunal held that it could not entertain the interim relief applications as the water dispute related to the same was not specifically referred to it by the Central Government.
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This article is written byKaustubh Phalke. The article exhaustively explores the special rules of evidence under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. The article starts with a brief introduction of the topic and then a clause-wise explanation of the provision and landmark cases, followed by a conclusion.
Table of Contents
Introduction
Presumptions are rules of law used by the courts to interpret the statute and ensure justice. These are inferences of a fact or evidence deemed true by the courts unless disproved by the parties. These can be affirmative or negative based on the reasoning of the circumstances. Presumptions made by the courts can be rebuttable or irrebuttable and the question of presumption must be dealt with distinctively from the question of proof. The presumption is drawn from the existence of one fact and the existence of another.
Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act of 1881(hereinafter referred to as NIA) deals with the special rules of evidence, i.e., regarding presumptions made by the court in the case of negotiable instruments. The general rule of presumption is given under Section 119 of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which discusses the presumption of the existence of certain facts. Section 118 NIA does not override the general rule of presumption; it is only applicable to the parties to the instrument or those claiming under it. The presumption under this provision is a rebuttable presumption of law.
Presumptions under the rules of evidence are of the following three types:
Presumption of law
Presumption of facts
Mixed presumption of law and facts
Clause-wise explanation of Section 118 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Of consideration
Clause (a) of the provision concerns consideration, i.e., it shall be presumed that every negotiable instrument was made or drawn for consideration. The consideration under this presumption includes something that has already been done and that is to be done in the future. This presumption may be rebutted by proving that the instrument has been obtained from its lawful owner by means of fraud or undue influence.
It shall be presumed that the acceptance, negotiation, or transfer of the instrument was done for a valid consideration. The court is bound under this provision to start with this presumption until the party denying the consideration proves it and rebuts the presumption.
The quantum of consideration is irrelevant under this provision, it talks about the passing of the consideration and not the quantum of consideration.
The presumption can only be raised when the execution of the instrument has been proved. The defendant can then rebut this presumption. If the defendant discharges its initial burden by proving the consideration to be doubtful, illegal or improbable, then the onus shifts to the plaintiff, and his failure to prove would disentitle him to the grant of relief. In the case of Narayanan Gangadhar Panicker vs. T.R. Haridasan (1989), it was held by the High Court of Kerala that where the execution of the instrument is in question, the plaintiff has to prove the passing of the consideration along with the execution of the instrument.
The main reason behind enacting this presumption is to simplify the process of negotiable instruments and the NIA. This presumption facilitates the transaction of negotiable instruments.
As to date
As per this clause, The presumption regarding the date is that where the negotiable instrument is dated, it is presumed that such an instrument has been drawn on such a date. This presumption is rebuttable and can be disproved by the other party.
In the case of Muller Maclean Khaderbhoy vs. Mulla Esmaili (1922), the bills were to be paid according to the terms of the bill at the current rate for bank demand draft at the date of the payment, and it was held that the rate of exchange should be calculated at the due date.
Time of acceptance
The presumption is particularly about the bills of exchange. It states that it is presumed unless proven otherwise, that the bills of exchange have been accepted within a reasonable time and before their maturity. This presumption is only made if the bills of exchange do not contain a date. If it includes a particular date, it will be prima facie taken as evidence of the date on which it was made. There is no presumption as to the date of acceptance.
Time of transfer
Unless the contrary is proved by the date of endorsement of the instrument, it is presumed that every transfer of a negotiable instrument has been made after its issue and before its maturity date. However, there is no presumption as to the exact date of negotiation.
Regarding the order of indorsement
As per this presumption, the order of the indorsee is presumed to be the same as mentioned on the negotiable instrument. For example, if no direct evidence has been produced regarding the order in which the indorsements were made, then the court will presume that the order of indorsement is the same as mentioned on the negotiable instrument.
Presumption that the negotiable instrument was duly stamped
If a negotiable instrument gets lost or is destroyed, it is presumed that the negotiable instrument was duly stamped. This is a rebuttable presumption. For example, suppose a plaintiff files a suit for recovery of money advanced on an oral contract and claims that the defendant executed a promissory note in return, which gets lost. If the court finds that the money was advanced to the defendant, then a presumption will be made that the instrument was duly stamped.
The presumption that the holder is a holder in due course
As per Section 8 NIA, the holder is a person who is legally entitled to the possession of the negotiable instrument and has the right to receive or recover the amount from the parties to such instrument.
As per Section 9 NIA, the holder in due course, is a person who has become the possessor of the negotiable instrument for a lawful consideration and, in good faith, believes that the instrument has no defect with regards to the title of the person from whom he derived it.
Clause (g) of Section 118 NIA states that the holder of the instrument will be presumed to be the holder in due course unless proved contrary. The holder has to prove that he is a holder for value and that he obtained the instrument before its date of maturity and without any suspicion concerning the title of the negotiable instrument. Suppose there is an allegation that the instrument has been obtained by committing an offence of fraud or by use of unlawful consideration. In that case, the holder has to prove that he is a holder in due course, i.e., he has received the negotiable instrument for consideration, and at the time he took it into his possession, he believed it to be defectless.
Other presumptions under NIA
The Negotiable Instruments Act deals with another two presumptions as well, which are given under Sections 119 and 139 of the Act.
Section 119 of the NIA deals with the presumption as to proof of protest. Protest is defined under Section 100 of NIA, which states that on a dishonour by non-acceptance or non-payment of a promissory note or a bill of exchange, the holder obtains a certificate and gets it noted by the notary public, which is called a protest. Section 119 presumes this certificate to be sufficient evidence to prove the dishonour of any negotiable instrument in court. It is a rebuttable presumption of law, like Section 118, i.e., it can be disproved.
Section 139 of the Act is a rebuttable presumption of law. It states that if a holder of a cheque received a cheque of nature as mentioned under Section 138 of the Act, then it will be presumed that the cheque was received in discharge of some debt or liability.
Important precedents
Mallavarapu Kasivisweswara Rao vs. Thadikonda Ramulu Firm and Ors. (2008)
Facts of the case
The facts of the case are that the appellant in the instant case is the son-in-law of respondent no. 2, respondent no. 3 and respondent no. 4 are sons of respondent no. 2 and respondent no. 1 is a firm that belongs to respondent no. 2, 3, 4. The managing partner of the firm is respondent no. 2.
The appellant introduced Pandya Ramakumar to the respondents, who promised to advance money to the respondents with the promise to repay the amount while the appellant would execute pronotes as surety. The consideration of these pronotes was duly received by the respondents; they were sending the payments through money and drafts in the name of the clerk of the appellants by depositing the amount in his account. The appellant would then withdraw these amounts from the account of the clerk and endorse them in favour of Pandya Ramakumar. Later, the respondents failed to repay the balance amount to the appellant, due to which Ramakumar started pressurising him for the balance amount. The respondents executed two pronotes amounting to Rs. 2,15,000 and 4,72,000 and a kararnama whereby the respondents agreed to pay the balance amount on an interest rate of Rs. 2.50 ps and Rs 1.50 ps respectively, per annum. After the default of payment again, the appellant sent a notice to the respondents stating the discharge of the pronotes and khararnama executed by respondent no. 1. The reply to this notice was sent to the appellants, stating the allegations to be false. The appellant filed a suit in the 1st court of the additional subordinate judge, Kakinda for the recovery of the amount along with the interest and costs. The respondents then filed a written statement denying all the allegations against them.
Issues of the case
Whether, in the absence of any rebuttal by the respondents to the facts that the promissory note was for consideration, which gave rise to the presumption under Section 118 NIA, it was required or not?
Judgement of the case
The Supreme Court held that if the defendant successfully proves and discharges the initial onus of proof showing that the existence of consideration was improbable or doubtful or that the same was illegal, then the onus would shift to the plaintiff, and failure to prove this onus would disentitle him from relief.
The defendants in the instant case failed to discharge their onus and hence the benefit of the presumption was allowed to the appellants. The decision of the High Court was declared to be impugned and the appeal was allowed with no order as to costs.
Kumar Exports vs. Sharma Carpets(2008)
Facts of the case
The facts of the case are that in the instant appeal, the appellant, Rajinder Kumar, is the proprietor of an exporter firm, M/s Kumar Exports, which runs its business in Panipat and the respondent is Jai Bhagwan Sharma, who is the proprietor of M/s Sharma carpets.
The appellants purchased hand-tufted wooden carpets from the appellants on 6th August 1994 costing Rs. 190348.39. The appellants issued two cheques in the favour of the respondents, amounting to Rs. 100000 and Rs. 90348.39, respectively. The cheques were presented to the bank for encashment but were returned due to insufficient funds in the account. This was brought to the attention of the appellants, who requested that the respondents re-present the cheques that were dishonoured again by the bank due to insufficient funds. The respondents sent a statutory notice to the appellant for the repayment but neither they replied nor repaid the amount, following which the respondents filed a complaint in the court of judicial magistrate first class and prayed to convict the appellants under Section 138 NIA.
Issues
Whether the appellant be convicted under Section 138 NIA when the cheques were not issued in the discharge of any liability?
Judgment
The Supreme Court in this case held that the presumption under Section 118 NIA and Section 139 NIA is a rebuttable and mandatory presumption of law, i.e., the court will have to mandatorily take into view the presumption until proven contrary. The other party has an option to disprove and break the presumption. When the provisions are read in consonance with Section 2Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, it becomes evident that in the cases of Section 138 NIA, once the execution of a negotiable instrument has been proved or admitted, a presumption will have to be made that every negotiable instrument was made or drawn for consideration and that it was executed for the discharge of some liability. Once the complainant discharges its burden that the instrument has been executed by the accused, the special rules of evidence under Section 118 and Section 139 NIA help him shift the burden on the accused. These presumptions will continue to exist and survive until the accused proves the contrary. A presumption is not evidence in itself, it just makes a prima facie case for a party for whose benefit it exists.
The conclusion of the judgment was that the sale of the woolen carpets had not taken place and no debt existed in discharge of which, the appellant was expected to issue the cheques to the respondents. Hence the accused had successfully discharged his onus. The complainant had not adduced any evidence in his defence; hence, the impugned judgement of the High Court is set aside. The appeal was allowed.
Conclusion
Chapter 13 discusses the special rules of evidence. The presumption under Section 118 of the NIA is a rebuttable presumption of law, i.e., a mandatory presumption that can be proved contrary. There are two meanings of the burden of proof, one is the matter of law and pleading and the other is the burden of establishing the case. The question of a matter of law and pleading may be proved by the pleadings and remain unchanged during the trial, whereas the latter one gets shifted once the party has adduced evidence in his favour. The evidence may be indirect as well; the evidence may be oral, documentary, an admission made by the opposite party, circumstantial evidence, or presumptions of law or facts. These presumptions can only be taken into account once the execution of the negotiable instrument has been proven.
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